MCAT Section Tests Dear Future Doctor, The following Section Test and explanations should be used to practice and to assess your mastery of critical thinking in each of the section areas Topics are confluent and are not necessarily in any specific order or fixed proportion This is the level of integration in your preparation that collects what you have learned in the Kaplan classroom and synthesizes your knowledge with your critical thinking Simply completing the tests is inadequate; a solid understanding of your performance through your Score Reports and the explanations is necessary to diagnose your specific weaknesses and address them before Test Day All rights are reserved pursuant to the copyright laws and the contract clause in your enrollment agreement and as printed below Misdemeanor and felony infractions can severely limit your ability to be accepted to a medical program and a conviction can result in the removal of a medical license We offer this material for your practice in your own home as a courtesy and privilege Practice today so that you can perform on test day; this material was designed to give you every advantage on the MCAT and we wish you the best of luck in your preparation Sincerely, Albert Chen Executive Director, Pre-Health Research and Development Kaplan Test Prep © 2003 Kaplan, Inc All rights reserved No part of this book may be reproduced in any form, by Photostat, microfilm, xerography or any other means, or incorporated into any information retrieval system, electronic or mechanical without the written permission of Kaplan, Inc This book may not be duplicated, distributed or resold, pursuant to the terms of your Kaplan Enrollment Agreement Physical Sciences Test Time: 60 Minutes Number of Questions: 45 MCAT PHYSICAL SCIENCES DIRECTIONS: Most of the questions in the following Physical Sciences test are organized into groups, with a descriptive passage preceding each group of questions Study the passage, then select the single best answer to each question in the group Some of the questions are not based on a descriptive passage; you must also select the best answer to these questions If you are unsure of the best answer, eliminate the choices that you know are incorrect, then select an answer from the choices that remain Indicate your selection by blackening the corresponding circle on your answer sheet A periodic table is provided below for your use with the questions PERIODIC TABLE OF THE ELEMENTS H 1.0 He 4.0 Li 6.9 Be 9.0 B 10.8 C 12.0 N 14.0 O 16.0 F 19.0 10 Ne 20.2 11 Na 23.0 12 Mg 24.3 13 Al 27.0 14 Si 28.1 15 P 31.0 16 S 32.1 17 Cl 35.5 18 Ar 39.9 19 K 39.1 20 Ca 40.1 21 Sc 45.0 22 Ti 47.9 23 V 50.9 24 Cr 52.0 25 Mn 54.9 26 Fe 55.8 27 Co 58.9 28 Ni 58.7 29 Cu 63.5 30 Zn 65.4 31 Ga 69.7 32 Ge 72.6 33 As 74.9 34 Se 79.0 35 Br 79.9 36 Kr 83.8 37 Rb 85.5 38 Sr 87.6 39 Y 88.9 40 Zr 91.2 41 Nb 92.9 42 Mo 95.9 43 Tc (98) 44 Ru 101.1 45 Rh 102.9 46 Pd 106.4 47 Ag 107.9 48 Cd 112.4 49 In 114.8 50 Sn 118.7 51 Sb 121.8 52 Te 127.6 53 I 126.9 54 Xe 131.3 55 Cs 132.9 56 Ba 137.3 57 La * 138.9 72 Hf 178.5 73 Ta 180.9 74 W 183.9 75 Re 186.2 76 Os 190.2 77 Ir 192.2 78 Pt 195.1 79 Au 197.0 80 Hg 200.6 81 Tl 204.4 82 Pb 207.2 83 Bi 209.0 84 Po (209) 85 At (210) 86 Rn (222) 87 88 Fr Ra (223) 226.0 89 Ac † 227.0 104 Rf (261) 105 Ha (262) 106 Unh (263) 107 Uns (262) 108 Uno (265) 109 Une (267) * 58 Ce 140.1 59 Pr 140.9 60 Nd 144.2 61 Pm (145) 62 Sm 150.4 63 Eu 152.0 64 Gd 157.3 65 Tb 158.9 66 Dy 162.5 67 Ho 164.9 68 Er 167.3 69 Tm 168.9 70 Yb 173.0 71 Lu 175.0 † 90 Th 232.0 91 Pa (231) 92 U 238.0 93 Np (237) 94 Pu (244) 95 Am (243) 96 Cm (247) 97 Bk (247) 98 Cf (251) 99 Es (252) 100 Fm (257) 101 Md (258) 102 No (259) 103 Lr (260) GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE as developed by Physical Sciences Passage I (Questions 1–7) Black and white photographic film is essentially an emulsion of silver bromide and gelatin mounted onto a plastic backing bonded to an antihalation to prevent internal reflection When light strikes film through a camera lens, the silver bromide is activated The amount of silver bromide that becomes activated is directly proportional to the intensity of the light hitting the film The exposed film can then be developed by reaction with the mild reducing agent hydroquinone The silver in the activated silver bromide reacts preferentially with the hydroquinone to produce metallic silver and quinone by the following reaction: AgBr * + A B C D (aq) Ag( s ) + HBr( aq) + 2.0 moles Ag(s) 1.0 mole Ag(s) 0.50 moles Ag(s) 0.25 moles Ag(s) The half-reaction that shows the oxidation in Reaction is: A Hydroquinone(aq) ? quinone(aq) + 2H+(aq) + 2e– B Ag+(aq) + e– ? Ag(s) C Quinone(aq) + 2H+(aq) + 2e– ? hydroquinone(aq) D Ag(s) ? Ag+ (aq) + e– O OH How many moles of metallic silver are deposited on the film if 1.0 mole of AgBr is reacted with 0.25 moles of hydroquinone in Reaction 1? (aq) O OH Reaction A completely white because metallic silver would be deposited over the entire surface of the film B completely white because the unactivated silver bromide would still be on the film C completely black because the unactivated silver bromide would bond with the hydroquinone D completely black because the unactivated silver bromide would be reduced to metallic silver The black metallic silver settles on the backing of the film The film is then treated with a fixer to stop the reduction The fixer is usually a solution of sodium thiosulfate (Na2S2O3) which removes the unreacted crystals of silver bromide from the film by ion-exchange solvation This developing process produces a negative, which has the black and white areas of the photograph reversed To get a positive print, the developer must shine light through the negative onto a piece of photographic paper Photographic paper uses a similar silver bromide emulsion as that laminated onto film; however, in the case of photographic paper, the emulsion is spread onto polyethylene-coated paper rather than plastic A negative not treated with a fixer solution during development would appear: In the reaction between silver bromide and the sodium thiosulfate fixer solution, AgBr(s) + S2O32–(aq) ? Ag(S2O3)23–(aq) + Br–(aq) What is the change in the oxidation state of Ag? A B C D it increases from +1 to +3 it increases from +1 to +2 no change: it remains +1 it decreases from +1 to –3 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE KAPLAN MCAT In the formation of a silver halide, the halide attracts a valence electron from silver Which halide has the strongest affinity for such a valence electron? A B C D A photographic print shows a white ball and a gray ball on a black background The greatest concentration of activated silver halide on the undeveloped film was on: A B C D F Cl Br I the background the gray ball the white ball the boundary between the white ball and the background What is the molar solubility of AgBr in a 0.10 M solution of AgNO3? (Ksp AgBr = 5.0 ∞ 10–13) A B C D 0.10 mole/liter 1.0 ∞ 10–11 mole/liter 5.0 ∞ 10–12 mole/liter 5.0 ∞ 10–13 mole/liter Passage II (Questions 8–12) A simple model of the nucleus of an atom is a ball of no protons and no neutrons We call protons and neutrons nucleons, because they are the constituents of the nucleus Einstein’s mass-energy equation defines the rest energy of a nucleon, E: E = mc2 where m is the mass of the nucleon and c is the speed of light in a vacuum, ∞ 108 m/s This equation unifies matter and energy, indicating that they are really the same thing There are forces within the nucleus which must be considered when calculating its mass and energy The repulsive electrostatic force between protons tends to break apart the nucleus But the strong nuclear force, a short range but powerful force, holds the nucleus together despite the electrostatic force Because there is a negative potential energy associated with this strong nuclear force, two or more nucleons bound together in a nucleus have less energy than they have separately The nuclear binding energy is the difference between the rest energy of the nucleus and the sum of the rest energies of its constituent nucleons It is the amount of energy that must be supplied to the nucleus to break it into separate neutrons and protons The nuclear binding energy associated with a nucleon in a nucleus is, in general, much larger than the atomic binding energy associated with an electron in an atom The nuclear binding energy has a mass associated with it, called the mass defect, ∆m, which is the difference between the sum of the masses of the constituent nucleons of a nucleus and its actual, measured mass The binding energy of a nucleus and its mass defect are related by E = ∆mc2 The following graph shows how the binding energy per nucleon, varies with mass number (Note: A photon’s energy is given by E = hc/λ, where h = 6.6 ∞ 10–34 J•s is Planck’s constant, c = ∞ 108 m/s is the speed of light in a vacuum, and λ is the wavelength.) GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE as developed by Physical Sciences 10 Which of the following best explains the decreasing trend in binding energy per nucleon for heavy elements as the mass number, A, increases? A Nucleons in larger nuclei experience stronger strong nuclear forces because of the increased distances between them B Nucleons in larger nuclei experience stronger electrostatic forces because of their larger size C Nucleons in larger nuclei experience weaker strong nuclear forces because of their larger size D Nucleons in larger nuclei experience weaker electrostatic forces because of the greater total charge Figure Which of the following is equal to the mass defect of A the nucleus Z X ? (Note: mp and mn are the masses of a proton and a neutron respectively M is the actual A measured mass of the Z X nucleus.) A B C D (Zmp + (A–Z)mn) – M (Zmn – M) + (Zmp + (A – Z)mn) Amn – M (Amn – M) + Zmp In beta decay, the parent nucleus decays into the daughter nucleus and emits an electron What is the mass condition for beta decay to occur? A The mass defect of the daughter nucleus must be less than the mass defect of the parent nucleus B The combined masses of the parent nucleus and an electron must be greater than the mass of the daughter nucleus C The mass of the parent nucleus must be greater than the combined masses of an electron and the daughter nucleus D The mass of the daughter nucleus must be less than the sum of the masses of its constituent nucleons 11 Which of the following nuclear reactions releases the most energy, according to the information given in the graph? A B C D 13 6C 15 7N 3Li 1H + 1H ? + 1H ? + 1H ? + 1H ? 14 7N 12 6C + He 2 He He 12 A nucleus undergoes gamma decay and emits a photon of wavelength λ = 3.86 ∞ 10–12 m What is the difference between the initial rest mass of the nucleus and its final rest mass? (Note: Neglect the recoil energy of the nucleus.) A B C D –4.2 ∞ 10–39 kg –1.9 ∞ 10–31 kg 5.7 ∞ 10–31 kg 4.2 ∞ 10–39 kg GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE KAPLAN MCAT Table Passage III (Questions 13–18) Half-reaction Corrosion is an electrochemical phenomenon that results in the degradation of metals For example, when iron is exposed to oxygen and water for prolonged periods, corrosion occurs, and hydrated iron oxide (rust) forms on its surface The porous rust layer eventually flakes off and exposes the underlying metal to further corrosion The half-reactions that are thought to take place are: Fe2+(aq) + 2e– ? Fe(s) O2 + 4H+(aq) + 4e– ? 2H2O(l) Al3+(aq) Zn2+(aq) Ni2+(aq) Sn2+(aq) Pd2+(aq) + 2e– E°(V) ? Mg(s) –2.37 + 3e– ? Al(s) –1.66 + 2e– ? Zn(s) –0.76 + 2e– ? Ni(s) –0.26 + 2e– ? Sn(s) –0.14 + 2e– ? Pd(s) +0.99 E° = –0.44 V E° = 1.23 V The overall reaction is given by: 13 In Table which metal would make the best sacrificial anode for protecting iron from corrosion? 2Fe(s) + O2(g) + 4H+(aq) ? 2Fe2+(aq) + 2H2O(l) Mg2+(aq) E° = 1.67 V Reaction The Fe2+ ions formed at the anode are further oxidized by the +3 state to form rust: 4Fe2+(aq) + O2(g) + (4 + 2x)H2O(l) ? 2Fe2O3•xH2O(s) + 8H+(aq) Reaction Metals can be protected from corrosion in a number of ways One way is to use a protective coating such as paint or plastic; however, such a coating can fracture and expose a fresh iron surface to the atmosphere A better way to guard against corrosion involves the use of a sacrificial anode, which is a metal that is more easily oxidized than the metal being protected A sacrificial metal placed in contact with iron, for instance, will be preferentially oxidized Table shows a number of metals that could be used as sacrificial anodes for other metals A B C D Magnesium Tin Zinc Palladium 14 Which of the following does NOT increase the rate of corrosion? A B C D Dissolved CO2 gas Air pollution Salt water Nitrogen gas 15 Based on the information in the passage, where is rust deposited? A On the exposed metal surface of the cathode B On the exposed metal surface of the anode C In the unexposed cathodic regions of the iron matrix D In the unexposed anodic regions of the iron matrix GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE as developed by Physical Sciences 16 Which of the following is the standard electrode potential for the cell: Zn(s) | Zn2+(0.10 M) || Fe2+(0.10 M) | Fe(s)? A B C D –1.20 V –0.32 V +0.32 V +1.20 V Questions 19 through 23 are NOT based on a descriptive passage 19 A kg aluminum sphere and a kg brass sphere both having the same diameter and both at the same height above the ground are allowed to fall freely Neglecting air resistance and assuming both spheres are released at the same instant, they will reach the ground at: A B C D 17 All electrode potentials are measured in relation to the standard hydrogen electrode (SHE) Which of the following is NOT a true statement about the SHE? A It uses hydrogen gas at atmosphere (760 mm Hg) B Its potential is assigned a value of zero volts C A half-cell with a negative reduction potential will undergo oxidation instead when coupled with the SHE D It uses 0.1 M of HCl the same time but with different speeds the same time and with the same speed different times and with different speeds different times but with the same speed 20 Consider the following reaction: HCl(aq) + H2O(l) ? H3O+(aq) + Cl–(aq) Which of the following is the conjugate base of H3O+? A B C D HCl H2O Cl– H2O and Cl– 21 Which form of energy transfer can occur in a vacuum? 18 What type of electrochemical cell the two halfreactions involved in iron corrosion make? A An electrolytic cell with unexposed iron serving as the cathode B An electrolytic cell with exposed iron serving as the cathode C A galvanic cell with unexposed iron serving as the cathode D A galvanic cell with exposed iron serving as the cathode A B C D Convection Conduction Radiation Energy transfer cannot occur in a vacuum 22 Which of the following is characteristic of a reducing agent? A B C D Its oxidation number decreases It gains electrons It must contain hydrogen It is oxidized GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE KAPLAN MCAT 23 An object weighs 180 N at the Earth’s surface How much would it weigh if its distance from the Earth’s center were tripled? A 20 N B 60 N C 180 N D 540 N Passage IV (Questions 24–29) Bubble chambers like the one shown in Figure are used to study elementary particles The chamber is usually filled with liquid hydrogen The piston in the chamber can be pulled down in order to lower the pressure in the chamber The liquid in the chamber is held at a temperature below its critical temperature The pressure in the chamber is then lowered in an isothermal (constant temperature) process to a point just within the boundary of the liquid-gas coexistence region without inducing a phase transition So the temperature of the liquid is above its boiling temperature at the new low pressure The system may now remain in an unstable superheated liquid state for some time If high speed particles pass through the liquid in this state, they will ionize molecules along their path Local boiling will occur around the ions before the entire system begins to boil So the paths of the high speed particles will be marked by trails of bubbles A photograph taken at the right moment will capture the bubble trails Magnets placed outside the chamber are used to produce a uniform magnetic field inside the chamber We can identify the charge and momentum of a particle by noting the direction of its curved path due to the magnetic field and measuring the radius of curvature In a magnetic field of strength B, a particle of charge q and momentum p will move in a circle of radius R The radius can be determined by the following formula: R = p/qB The bubble tracks shown in Figure were observed in a bubble chamber filled with liquid hydrogen The particles entered the chamber from the left and exited from the right The top of the diagram represents the top of the chamber A uniform magnetic field is produced inside the chamber, and it points into the page GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE as developed by Physical Sciences 25 What is a superheated liquid? A One that is at a temperature above its boiling temperature at atmospheric pressure B One that is at a temperature above its boiling temperature at its present pressure C One that is normally a gas at room temperature and atmospheric pressure D One that is a gas at temperatures over 1000°C at atmospheric pressure 26 Suppose the piston is pulled down initially, and the liquid hydrogen in the chamber boils What would subsequently happen to the piston if it were free to move in a process that keeps the pressure of the system constant? Figure A The piston would move away from the interior of the chamber as a result of work done by the system B The piston would move away from the interior of the chamber as a result of work done on the system C The piston would move toward the interior of the chamber as a result of work done by the system D The piston would move toward the interior of the chamber as a result of work done on the system Figure 24 What is it about the procedure used in setting up the bubble chamber that enables the hydrogen to remain in a liquid state even though its pressure and temperature indicate it should be a gas? A The pressure of the liquid is decreased in isothermal process B The temperature of the liquid is increased in adiabatic process C The volume of the liquid is decreased in isothermal process D The density of the liquid is increased in adiabatic process an 27 What type of event can the bubble tracks labeled “a” in Figure indicate? A B C D The decay of one particle into three particles An elastic collision between two particles A completely inelastic collision of two particles A completely inelastic collision of three particles an an 28 In Figure 2, what is the charge of the particles that left tracks “b” and “d”, respectively? an A B C D Positive, neutral Positive, negative Negative, neutral Negative, positive GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE KAPLAN MCAT 29 In Figure 2, assuming all the particles in the chamber carry charge of the same magnitude, which labeled set of tracks includes the track of the particle with the smallest momentum? A B C D Passage V (Questions 30–35) Experimental analysis of the behavior of gases by Boyle, Charles, and Gay-Lussac can be combined to form the ideal gas equation a b c d PV = nRT Equation where P is the pressure, V is the volume, T is the temperature, n is the number of moles of the gas, and R is the ideal gas constant Whereas the ideal gas law can predict the behavior of gases, it fails to explain their behavior The kinetic molecular theory explains the behavior of gases in terms of the motion of individual particles This theory, based on a number of assumptions, adequately accounts for the macroscopic behavior of gases and also provides insight into their microscopic properties The van der Waals equation of state (Equation 2) was developed to explain deviations from ideal behavior that occur under certain conditions This equation compensates for these deviations by incorporating terms into the ideal gas equation that account for intermolecular forces and molecular volume (P + n2a/V2)(V – nb) = nRT Equation In Equation 2, a is a constant that takes into account the intermolecular forces between gas molecules, and b is used to take into account the volume occupied by the gas molecules 30 The kinetic molecular theory is based on several assumptions Which of the following is NOT an assumption of the kinetic molecular theory? A B C D Gas particles have negligible volume Gas particles not have repulsive forces Gas particles have constant speed Gas particles collide without a net loss in kinetic energy GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE 10 as developed by Physical Sciences 31 Which of the following is a property of a real gas that is NOT possessed by an ideal gas? A B C D Kinetic energy Attractive forces Random motion Mass 32 When the temperature of a gas is increased and its volume is held constant: 35 Gas X and gas Y are both in a closed container at a temperature of 25°C; molecules of gas Y have greater mass than those of gas X Which of the following statements is correct? A Both gases have the same average speed B Gas X has a greater average kinetic energy than gas Y C Gas X has a greater average speed than gas Y D Gas Y has a greater average kinetic energy than gas X A there is a decrease in pressure because the space between the molecules of the gas decreases B there is a decrease in pressure because the elasticity of the molecules increases C there is an increase in pressure because the density of the gas increases D there is an increase in pressure because the frequency of the collisions between molecules and the container increases 33 Where would you see the most deviation from ideal gas behavior? A B C D At high temperatures At low temperatures and high pressure At low pressures and high temperatures At high pressures 34 From the table below, which of the following gases would be expected to have the largest value of b? Gas A B C D NH3 0.771 H2O 1.000 CH4 0.717 C2H5OH 0.789 NH3 H2O CH4 C2H5OH KAPLAN Density (g/L) GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE 11 MCAT Passage VI (Questions 36–41) An aerospace manufacturer wants to determine how its spaceships will hold up under collisions The spaceships are tested in a 600 km field in outer space with a stable and restively indestructible fixed wall at one end The mass of the wall is large compared to the mass of the spaceship so that the recoil of the wall is negligible compared to that of the ship after a collision The gravitational attraction between the wall and spaceship is negligible The engines of these ships are 100% efficient, enabling all fuel to be entirely converted to kinetic energy of the spaceship The mass of the fuel is proportional to the square root of the work done if it is considered small compared to the mass of the spaceship In the first experiment, a fully fueled spaceship is accelerated from rest with a constant force over a distance of 200 km The engines are then shut off and the spaceship travels another 200 km at a constant velocity because there is no air resistance in outer space Finally, the engines are re-ignited and the spaceship is again accelerated with the same constant force as in the first stretch for another 200 km At the end of this stretch the spaceship rebounds off of the wall, and coasts back to the starting point The spaceship is refueled in preparation for another run In the second experiment, the spaceship also starts from rest and the same constant force is applied by the engines as in the first run, but this time for only 100 km The engines are then shut off for a stretch of 200 km, and re-ignited for the remaining 300 km of the test run The spaceship rebounds off of the wall This time the spaceship takes less time to coast back to the starting point than it did in the first run The spaceship is then refilled with fuel a second time Some time later the fuel company sends an itemized bill to the spaceship manufacturer 36 How would a graph of the spaceship’s instantaneous power versus time appear during the first 100 km of either experiment? 37 In a third experiment the wall is removed and the engines are turned on for 100 km, turned off for 800 km, then turned on for 300 km In which experiment would the spaceship have reached a greater maximum velocity? A B C D The first experiment The second experiment The third experiment The spaceship reaches the same maximum velocity in all experiments described 38 Assuming no fuel leaked at any point, how could you determine whether the fuel company charged the correct amount? (Note: Assume the mass of the fuel is small compared to the mass of the spaceship.) A Multiply the force exerted by the spaceship engines in each experiment by the entire distance the ship traveled B Multiply the force exerted by the spaceship engines in each experiment by the distance over which the spaceship was accelerated in each experiment C Consider only the time that each experiment took D Multiply the mass by the average speed of the spaceship over the entire distance traveled GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE 12 as developed by Physical Sciences 39 If the average force imparted by the wall was the same in both cases, in which experiment was the spaceship in contact with the wall for the longest period of time? A In the first experiment, because the spaceship had a greater amount of fuel and therefore a greater mass than in the second experiment B In the first experiment, because the spaceship traveled at a lower speed after it hit the wall C In the second experiment, because the spaceship traveled at a greater speed after it hit the wall D Same duration in both experiments, because the change in momentum of the spaceship during the collision was the same in both experiments 41 From the following equation we can determine the change in velocity of the spaceship after it has expelled a certain amount of fuel: vf – vi = u ln(Mi/Mf) where u is the speed of the expelled gasses relative to the spaceship, Mi is the mass of the spaceship with a full load of fuel and Mf is the mass of the spaceship after some fuel has been expelled Which of the following graphs represents the ratio of initial to final mass? 40 After Experiment 1, what must be done to get the spaceship to come to a complete stop at the starting line in preparation for Experiment 2? A A force must be applied in the direction pointing from the starting line toward the wall in order to bring the spaceship to a stop at the starting line B A force must be applied in the direction pointing from the wall toward the starting line in order to bring the spaceship to a stop at the starting line C No force need be applied to the spaceship It will come to a stop on its own at the starting line D A force must be applied perpendicular to the direction the spaceship is traveling in order to bring the spaceship to a stop at the starting line GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE KAPLAN 13 MCAT Questions 42 through 45 are NOT based on a descriptive passage 45 If forces of 12 N and N act at one point, which of the following could be the magnitude of the resultant force? 42 Which of the following could represent the change in temperature with time when kJ of heat is added to melting ice? A C Time B I N II 13 N III 18 N A B C D II only III only I and II only II and III only Time D Time Time 43 If the separation of the plates of an isolated, charged parallel-plate capacitor is increased, which of the following will also increase? I The capacitance II The charge on the plates III The potential difference between the plates A B C D I only III only I and III only II and III only 44 When a spring is compressed to its minimum length and not permitted to expand: A potential energy is maximum and kinetic energy is minimum B kinetic energy is maximum and potential energy is minimum C potential energy and kinetic energy are maximum D potential energy and kinetic energy are minimum END OF TEST 14 as developed by Physical Sciences THE ANSWER KEY IS ON THE NEXT PAGE KAPLAN 15 MCAT ANSWER KEY: C C 22 D D 19 B 24 A 26 27 28 29 30 16 A B B C C 31 32 33 34 35 B D B D C 11 C A A 16 C 13 A 10 C 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 B D B C A 21 C 18 D 15 A A 23 A 20 B C C 25 B 12 C C 17 14 D D A D B A A as developed by ...Physical Sciences Test Time: 60 Minutes Number of Questions: 45 MCAT PHYSICAL SCIENCES DIRECTIONS: Most of the questions in the following Physical Sciences test are organized into groups,... electron? A B C D A photographic print shows a white ball and a gray ball on a black background The greatest concentration of activated silver halide on the undeveloped film was on: A B C D F Cl Br I... manufacturer wants to determine how its spaceships will hold up under collisions The spaceships are tested in a 600 km field in outer space with a stable and restively indestructible fixed wall at