Đề thi cao học tiếng anh 2009

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Đề thi cao học tiếng anh 2009

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xĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH CAO HỌC TRƯỜNG ĐẠI HỌC SƯ PHẠM HÀ NỘI Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề) Môn thi: Tiếng Anh Người thi không sử dụng tài liệu. SECTION 1. STRUCTURE & WRITTEN EXPRESSION Each sentence in this section is an incomplete sentence. Four words or phrases, marked (A), (B), (C), (D) are given beneath each sentence. You are to choose one word or phrase that best completes the sentence. Remember to eliminate answers that are incorrect and to choose the one that would be correct in formal written English. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Fill in the space so the letter inside the oval cannot be seen. 1. ___________ new diseases has engaged many researchers since the last decade. A. By studying B. The study of C. An important study D. Now that the study 2. Caves and hollow trees are not the only places _____________. A. where do bats live B. bats live where C. where bats live D. live where bats 3. The __________ was delivered to the offices before noon. A. sorted mail B. sorted mails C. sorting mail D. sorting mails 4. California relies heavily on income from fruit crops, and __________. A. Florida also B. Florida too C. Florida is as well D. so does Florida 5. Nevada has a limited water supply ________ light rainfall. A. because its B. is it because C. is because its D. because of its 6. Mary Lyon, who ____ from 1797 to 1849, founded Mount Holyoke College in Massachusetts. A. she lived B. living C. did she live D. lived 7. They didn’t find _________ in a foreign country. A. it easy to live B. it easy live C. easy to live D. it to live easy 8. If you’re still thirsty, I’ll make ___________ pot of coffee. A. another B. other C. the others D. another one 9. When Mark arrived, the Johnsons ___________ dinner, but they stopped to talk to him. A. are having B. had C. were having D. have had 10. Ms Sierra offered ___________ because she had faith in his capabilities. A. to Mr. Armstrong the position C. Mr. Armstrong the position B. the position for Mr. Armstrong D. Mr. Armstrong to the position 11. Mr Robbins, along with twenty friends, ___________ a party. A. is planning B. are planning C. have planned D. were planning 12. The budget committee decided ___________ this meeting. A. postpone B. to postpone C. to postponing D. postponing 13. If I had time, I __________ to the beach with you this weekend. A. will go B. go C. went D. would go 14. We must figure our income tax returns___________. A. accurate B. accurately C. more accurate D. the most accurate 15. The Empire State Building is _____________ the Statue of Liberty. A. higher as B. the highest C. higher than D. higher from

xĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH CAO HỌC TRƯỜNG ĐẠI HỌC SƯ PHẠM HÀ NỘI Môn thi: Tiếng Anh Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề) Người thi không sử dụng tài liệu. SECTION 1. STRUCTURE & WRITTEN EXPRESSION Section 1. a Each sentence in this section is an incomplete sentence. Four words or phrases, marked (A), (B), (C), (D) are given beneath each sentence. You are to choose one word or phrase that best completes the sentence. Remember to eliminate answers that are incorrect and to choose the one that would be correct in formal written English. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Fill in the space so the letter inside the oval cannot be seen. 1. ___________ new diseases has engaged many researchers since the last decade. A. By studying B. The study of C. An important study D. Now that the study 2. Caves and hollow trees are not the only places _____________. A. where do bats live B. bats live where C. where bats live D. live where bats 3. The __________ was delivered to the offices before noon. A. sorted mail B. sorted mails C. sorting mail D. sorting mails 4. California relies heavily on income from fruit crops, and __________. A. Florida also B. Florida too C. Florida is as well D. so does Florida 5. Nevada has a limited water supply ________ light rainfall. A. because its B. is it because C. is because its D. because of its 6. Mary Lyon, who ____ from 1797 to 1849, founded Mount Holyoke College in Massachusetts. A. she lived B. living C. did she live D. lived 7. They didn’t find _________ in a foreign country. A. it easy to live B. it easy live C. easy to live D. it to live easy 8. If you’re still thirsty, I’ll make ___________ pot of coffee. A. another B. other C. the others D. another one 9. When Mark arrived, the Johnsons ___________ dinner, but they stopped to talk to him. A. are having B. had C. were having D. have had 10. Ms Sierra offered ___________ because she had faith in his capabilities. A. to Mr. Armstrong the position C. Mr. Armstrong the position B. the position for Mr. Armstrong D. Mr. Armstrong to the position 11. Mr Robbins, along with twenty friends, ___________ a party. A. is planning B. are planning C. have planned D. were planning 12. The budget committee decided ___________ this meeting. A. postpone B. to postpone C. to postponing D. postponing 13. If I had time, I __________ to the beach with you this weekend. A. will go B. go C. went D. would go 14. We must figure our income tax returns___________. A. accurate B. accurately C. more accurate D. the most accurate 15. The Empire State Building is _____________ the Statue of Liberty. A. higher as B. the highest C. higher than D. higher from 1 16. That movie we saw last night was ___________ the one on television. A. much less interesting than C. less much interesting than B. less interesting much than D. interesting less much than 17. There were not ________ to have the meeting. A. enough people B. people enough C. enough person D. person enough 18. When teenagers finish high school, they have several choices: going to college, getting a job, or _______. A. to join the army B. the army C. joining the army D. join the army 19. A great deal of property _____________ by hurricanes each year. A. destroyed B. is destroyed C. was destroyed D. are destroyed 20. The little boy was punished because he ___________ his mother a lie. A. says B. tells C. said D. told Section 1. b WRITTEN EXPRESSION Each question in this section consists of a sentence in which four words or phrases are underlined. The four underlined parts of the sentence are marked A, B, C, D. You are to identify the one underlined word or phrase that would not be acceptable in standard written English. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Fill in the space so the letter inside the oval cannot be seen 21. While the boys were ice skating, they slip on the thin ice and fell into the deep water. A B C D 22. Some of the people were standing in the street watched the parade, while others were singing songs. A B C D 23. Dr. Harder, which is the professor for this class, will be absent this week because of illness. A B C D 24. Although the danger that he might be injured, Boris entered the burning house in order to A B C D save the youngster. 25. Despite the time of the year, yesterday’s temperature was enough hot to turn on the air A B C D conditioning. 26. I have to depositing this money in my checking account. A B C D 27. Even though she looks very young, she is twice older than my twenty-year-old sister. A B C D 28. Our English teacher would like us spending more time in the laboratory practicing our pronunciation. A B C D 29. His father does not approve of him to go to the banquet without dressing formally. A B C D 30. Mary and her sister studied biology last year, and so does Jean. A B C D 31. People respected George Washington because he was a honest man, and he turned out to be A B C one of our greatest military leaders. D 2 32. Peter and Tom plays tennis every afternoon with Mary. A B C D 33. The children were playing last night outdoors when it began to rain very hard. A B C D 34. Please give me a few coffee and some donuts if you have any left. A B C D 35. After George had returned to his house, he was reading a book. A B C D 36. These televisions are all too expensive for we to buy at this time, but perhaps we will return later. A B C D 37. Some of the plants in this store require very little care, but this one needs much more sunlight A B C than the others ones. D 38. A rabbit moves about by hopping on its hind legs, which are much longer and more strong A B C D than its front legs. 39. The idea that learning is a lifelong process has been expressed by philosophers and A B educations throughout the centuries. C D 40. The tradition of a Supreme Court was broke in the 1980’s when Sandra Day O’Connor was A B C D appointed to the Court. 41. Thomas Alva Edition is remembered chiefly as the man which invented the light bulb. A B C D 42. Marla Mitchell, the first professor of astronomy at Vassar College, she was born in 1818. A B C D 43. The Cherokee system was invented 1821 by Sequoya, a member of that American Indian nation. A B C D 44. There was a very interesting news on the radio this morning about the earthquake in Italy. A B C D 45. John lived in New York since 1960 to 1975, but he is now living in Detroit. A B C D 46. The owl cannot to see well in the dark, but it hunts on moonlit nights. A B C D 47. Every machine consume more energy than it creates. A B C D 48. John Dewey is generally considered one of the greatest modern educational philosopher. A B C D 49. Most Americans would not be happy without a color television, two cars, and working at an extra job. A B C D 50. How much times did Rick and Jennifer have to do the experiment before they obtained the A B C D results they had been expecting? SECTION 2. READING COMPREHENSION 3 In this section, you will read a number of passages. Each one is followed by 8 – 9 questions about it. Choose the one best answer, (A), (B), (C), (D), to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Fill in the space so the letter inside the oval cannot be seen. Answer all of the questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Passage 1 Do you want to increase your vocabulary? A good way to do this is to break long English words into smaller parts. These parts are called roots, prefixes, and suffixes. They have meanings that are easy to remember. In the word "transportation," the root is "port." This means "to carry." The prefix is "trans." This means "across." The suffix is "tion" This means the word is a noun. So, we could guess that transportation means something like "carrying across." This is close to the real meaning, "a carrying of things or people from one place to another. "Once you learn some of the common roots, prefixes, and suffixes, you can figure out the meanings of many other unfamiliar English words. 51. Which of the following best states the main idea of the passage? A. You can better understand long words by dividing them into smaller parts. B. It's easier to remember long words than short words. C. Roots, prefixes and suffixes are only used in English. D. Transportation means "carrying across." 52. The phrase "figure out" is closest in meaning to A. add B. shape C. remove D. understand 53. What does “they” refer to? A. English words B. vocabulary C. roots, prefixes, suffixes D. meaning 54. What does ‘this” refer to? A. increasing your vocabulary C. decreasing your vocabulary B. understanding a word D. looking up a word in a dictionary 55. What does the prefix ‘trans” mean? A. past B. across C. carry D. port 56. The word "Once" is closest in meaning to A. Before B. Later C. When D. So 57. The word "increase" is closest in meaning to A. enlarge B. decrease C. learn D. practice 58. When a word has the suffix “tion”, we can predict that it is A. a verb B. an adjective C. an adverb D. a noun Passage 2 4 Perhaps they are not the most beautiful animals in the world but in the hot lands of North Africa and the Middle East they are certainly one of the most useful. But how much do you know about camels? Camels normally live for about forty years but they usually stop working when they are about twenty five. Camels don’t normally like running - it is too hot – but when they need to, they can run at twenty kilometers an hour. The dromedary, or Arabian camel, has one hump. The Bactrian, or Asian camel, has longer hair and has got two humps. There are about fourteen million camels in the world, and most of them are dromedaries. An adult camel is about 2.1 meters tall and weighs about five hundred kilograms. Camels can walk for more than 600 kilometers without drinking. They only need to drink water every 6 or 8 days. But when there is water, they can drink up to 90 liters. 59. How long do camels live? A. for about 40 years B. for about 25 years C. for about 90 years D. for about 60 years 60. How fast can they run? A. about 10 kilometers an hour B. about 20 kilometers an hour C. about 30 kilometers an hour D. about 40 kilometers an hour 61. How many humps does a dromedary have? A. None B. One C. Two D. Three 62. How much does an adult camel weigh? A. 300 kilograms B. 400 kilograms C. 500 kilograms D. 600 kilograms 63. How far can camels walk without drinking? A. 300 kilometers B. 400 kilometers C. 500 kilometers D. 600 kilometers 64. How often do camels need to drink water? A. Twice a day B. Everyday C. Every three or four days D. Every six or eight days 65. The word “Bactrian” in the passage is closest in meaning to A. an Asian camel B. an Arabian camel C. an old camel D. a baby camel 66. What word does “they” in line 4 refer to? A. animals B. camels C. dromedaries D. two humps 5 Passage 3 Australia is a country in the southern hemisphere comprising the mainland, which is both the world's smallest continent and the world's largest island, the island of Tasmania, and numerous other islands in the Indian and Pacific Oceans. Australia has rainforests, deserts, and mountains. The population is just over 21.7 million. Seventy percent of the people in Australia live in and around the mainland state capitals of Sydney, Melbourne, Brisbane, Perth, and Adelaide, the cities near the coasts. The middle of the country is nearly deserted. Australia has 175 million sheep, about a sixth of the world’s total. It produces a third of the world’s wool. It exports ninety-seven percent of its wool to Japan, Europe, and China. Australia also has about 24 million cattle. It exports beef to more than 100 countries. The nation's capital city is Canberra, located in the Australian Capital Territory (ACT). Two million tourists visit this beautiful country each year. 67. How much of the world’s wool is produced in Australia, according to the passage? A. 66 percent B. 33 percent C. 25 percent D. 75 percent 68. How many Australians don’t live in cities near the coast? A. 70 percent B. 20 percent C. 30 percent D. 50 percent 69. The word “deserted” line 6 is closest in meaning to A. dangerous B. dry C. empty D. old and falling down 70. What is the population of Australia? A. about 22 million B. about 24 million C. about 175 million D. about 70 million 71. What is the capital of Australia? A. Sydney B. Melbourne C. Brisbane D. Canberra 72. What does “this” refer to? A. Canberra B. ACT C. Australia D. Europe 73. What is the passage mainly about? A. A brief introduction of Australia B. A brief introduction of the southern hemisphere C. The population of Australia D. Tourism in Australia 74. The word “exports” in line 9 is closest in meaning to A. imports B. sells oversea C. buys D. produces 75. The word “comprising” in line 1 is closest in meaning to A. consisting of B. dividing C. living D. visiting 6 Passage 4 Geology is the study of the Earth. It is a young branch of science, and it is a study of the solid and liquid matter that constitutes the Earth. The field of geology encompasses the study of the composition, structure, physical properties, and history of Earth materials, and the processes by which they are formed, moved, and changed. It is only about 200 years old. This seems odd, because people have lived on the Earth for more than 60,000 years. We studied the stars in the sky as long as 4,000 years ago. Geology helps us today in many different ways. We depend on the Earth for our minerals and fuel. We get water from the Earth. We get materials to build our homes. Much has changed as our knowledge has increased. One thing, however, hasn’t changed – we still need the Earth to survive. 76. According to the passage, A. We studied the Earth before the stars B. We studied the stars before the Earth C. Geology is an old branch of science D. Geology is not very important 77. What does paragraph 2 mainly discuss? A. Study of the stars B. Minerals, fuels, and water C.Uses of geology D. History of science 78. The phrase “depend on” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to A. be one way because of B. need C. push D. use for support 79. What does the word “it” in line 4 refer to? A. the Earth B. Geology C. history of Earth materials D. Geography 80. How long have people lived in the Earth? A. for more than 60,000 years B. for less than 60,000 years C. for about 40,000 years D. for about 100,000 years 81. The word “odd” in line 4 is closest in meaning to A. strange B. understandable C. reasonable D. scientific 82. What is Geology? A. A study of the Earth B. A study of solid matter C. A study of liquid matter D. A study of stars and sky 83. The phrase “hasn’t changed’ in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to A. has been replaced B. has become different C. has been true D. has been discovered 84. The phrase “to survive” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to A. to help us B. to maintain life C. to build our homes D. to get water from the Earth 7 Passage 5 Tim Berners – Lee looks very ordinary. He was born in England but now lives in Massachusetts in the USA. But in 1989 Tim has a very important idea. He invented the world wide web (www). Both his parents worked with computers so it isn’t surprising that he loved computers from an early age. When he was eighteen, he left school and went to Oxford University where he studied physics. At Oxford he became more and more interested in computers, and he made his first computer from an old television. He graduated in 1976 and got a job with a computer company in Dorset, England. In 1989, he went to work in Switzerland where he first had the idea of an international information network linked by computer. He decided to call it the world wide web, and he also decided to make his ideas free to everyone – that is why today we do not pay to use the Internet. In 1995, he wrote an article in the New York Times where he said, “the web is a universe of information and it is for everyone”. 85. Where was Tim Berners Lee born? A. in Massachusetts B. in England C. in Switzerland D. in New York 86. When did he graduate from Oxford University? A. in 1976 B. in 1989 C. in 1995 D. in 1999 87. The word “linked’ in line 8 is closest in meaning to A. separated B. connected C. invented D. interested 88. After graduation, he A. immediately went to the USA B. worked in England C. made his first computer D. became a reporter at the New York Times 89. The phrase “surprising” in line 3 is closest in meaning to A. interesting B. astonishing C. exciting D. sad 90. The word “it” in line 11 refers to A. the computer B. information C. the universe D. the web 91. The phrase “that is why” in line 9 is closest in meaning to A. because B. therefore C. although D. but 92. The word “graduated” in line 8 is closest in meaning to A. got a university degree B. left school C. started a job D. went to a job interview 8 Passage 6 After the radio was invented, people began thinking of a way to transmit pictures, as well as sound, through the air. This resulted in the development of the television. The television quickly became very popular. By 1952, more than 7 million television sets had been sold. Television got most of its shows from radio or the movies. It had music and comedy shows like radio had. It aired old movies like theaters showed. It showed these old movies late at night. Then, they started making action movies for television. These were the most popular programs. Many theaters closed and few people listened to the radio. Soon, they learned to make special shows for certain kinds of people. Radio and theater kept going. Eventually, radio and theater became popular again. 93. Which of the following best states the main idea of the passage? A. Radio and television were better liked than theater. B. The maker of the first radio also made the first television. C. People liked television so much at first that it almost ended radio and theater. D. People liked theater and radio very much so that it was difficult for television to begin. 94. The word “aired” in line 5 is closest in meaning to A. sent by plane B. showed on TV C. breathed D. blew on TV 95. The word “it” in line 4 refers to A. r B. radio C. television D. film 96. The phrase “by 1952” in line 3 is closest in meaning to A. From 1952 to now B. In the year 1952 C. From the invention of television to 1952 D. After the radio was invented 97. What does the word “these” in line 6 refer to? A. action movies B. music shows C. comedy shows D. old movies 98. Why did radio and theater later become popular again? A. Because they had music and comedy shows B. Because they learned to make special shows for certain kinds of people C. Because they had old movies D. Because they had action movies 99. The phrase “resulted in” in line 2 could best be replaced by which of the following? A. led to B. was because of C. was the reason why D. invented 100. The phrase “certain kinds of people” in line 8 is closet in meaning to A. all kinds of people B. specific kinds of people C. television viewers D. famous people the end 9 . xĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH CAO HỌC TRƯỜNG ĐẠI HỌC SƯ PHẠM HÀ NỘI Môn thi: Tiếng Anh Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề) Người thi không. for we to buy at this time, but perhaps we will return later. A B C D 37. Some of the plants in this store require very little care, but this one needs

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