Đề thi thử THPTQG môn Tiếng Anh - THPT Nông Cống 1 năm 2015

TRƯỜNG THPT NÔNG CỐNG I TỔ TIẾNG ANH   ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC   ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA LẦN I NĂM HỌC: 2014-2015 MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH – LỚP 12 Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. borough             B. rough                     C. sough                     D. tough Question 2: A. schools              B. shares                    C. attempts                D. believes   Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 3: A. technology        B. economics             C. achievement          D. dependent Question 4: A. necessary           B. endangered           C. humidity                D. incredible Question 5: A. electronic          B. insurance               C. understand            D. expedition   Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 6:  The last person _____ will have to turn off the lights. A. leaving                      B. have left                    C. to leave                      D. left Question 7:  This shirt is ______ that one. A. much far expensive than                                  B. a bit less expensive C. as much expensive as                                       D. not nearly as expensive as Question 8:  My friend bought ___________ from a shop onTran Phu street. A. a nice brown leather belt                                 B. a brown nice leather belt C. a leather brown nice belt                                 D. a nice leather brown belt Question 9: _________ does not circle around the earth was proven by Galileo. A. That the rest of the universe                            B. Since the rest of the universe C. As the rest of the universe                               D. The rest of the universe Question 10: A: I think it is a good idea to have three or four generations living under one roof.                   B: _________ Family members can help each other a lot. A. That's wrong.                                                   B. I couldn't agree any more. C. I don't agree.                                                   D. It's not true. Question 11: Ann: How well you are playing, Peter!            Peter: _________. A. Say it again. I like to hear your words            B. Thank you too much C. Many thanks, that's a nice compliment           D. I think so. I'm proud of myself Question 12:  The teacher as well as his students____________ at the school meeting yet. A. not arriving               B. arrived                       C. hasn’t  arrived           D. haven’t arrived Question 13: "Why wasn't your boyfriend at the party last night?"           - "He ______ the lecture at Shaw Hall. I know he very much wanted to hear the speaker." A. was to attend                                                   B. may have attended C. should have attended                                      D. can have attended Question 14: Giving up smoking is just one of the ways to ______ heart disease. A. throw off                  B. put off                       C. push off                     D. ward off Question 15: For lunch, I always have something quick and easy: a sandwich, a salad, toast and the __________. A. same                          B. similar                        C. like                            D. rest Question 16: It is essential thatAlice __________ about his responsibilities in the meeting tomorrow. A. must remind              B. will be reminded       C. will remind                D. be reminded Question 17: The use of computers aids in teaching, __________ the role of teachers is still very important. A. because                     B. although                    C. yet                             D. so that Question 18:   _____ that Marie was able to retire at the age of 50. A. So successful was her business,                       B. So was her successful business, C. Her business was successful                            D. So successful her business was, Question 19: - “Can I carry these suitcases into the room for you?”                   - “______” A. Can you? That’s very kind.                             B. You can’t, I think! C. No, you can’t.                                                  D. Yes, you can. Question 20: My mother ______ me against staying late night after night to prepare for exams. A. encouraged               B. warned                      C. recommended           D. reprimanded Question 21: She must have been sleepless last night. Otherwise, her eyes _______ so bloody now. A. won’t look                B. looked                       C. would’t look             D. wouldn’t have looked Question 22: The foreign visitor group wanted to pay their last respect to ________ Mr Vo Nguyen Giap used to live, so they waited hours to take the chance. A. that he                                                              B. him and which C. the place where and him                                  D. him and the place where Question 23: After we each had been assigned an installment part of the project, we came back to our _______ section. A. respective                  B. respectively               C. respectful                  D. irrespective Question 24: He’s becoming so popular in the entertainment world that he has earned thousands of dollars’ contracts. He’s worn a ______ vest nowadays when he goes out, like some VIP. A. neo-bullet                  B. bulletproof                C. anti-fire                     D. fireproof   Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 25:  Deerlike figures made from willow shoots are the oldest evidence of human habitation in theGrand Canyon. A. clue                           B. dispute                      C. exhibit                       D. proof Question 26: He drives me to the edge because he never stops talking. A. irritates me                B. frightens me              C. moves me                  D. steers me   Question 27: I think we can safely say now that we have got our money back, we are home and dry. A.  have been successful                                      B. have not got wet       C. have got no water                                            D. have got home dry Question 28: Roget's Thesaurus, a collection of English words and phrases, was originally arranged by the ideas they express rather than by alphabetical order. A. restricted                   B. as well as                   C. unless                        D. instead of Question 29: Within a week on display at the exhibition , the painting was hailed as a masterpiece. A. a down- to –earth work of art                         B. an expensive work of art C. an excellent work of art                                   D. a large worrk of art   Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 30: The abilities to work hard, follow directions, and thinking independently are some of the                                                A                                                         B                                C criteria for success in the workplace.                    D           Question 31: The longest mountain range, the Mid-Atlantic Range, is not hardly visible because most of                                         A                                                                                   B                                       C it lies  under the ocean.          D Question 32:  Establishing in 1984 for students who wanted to study art and music subjects, LaGuardia        A                                B  was the first public school of its kind.    C                                           D Question 33:  All Vietnamese special schools are funded by money from government and/or A                                               B                                       C   charity organizations.                      D Question 34: I think she will be suitable for the work because she has been working like a teacher for a                                             A                    B                                                 C                D  long time.   Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct  answer to each of the following questions The United Nations Children's Fund, or UNICEF, was (35) _____ by the United Nations General Assembly on December 11, 1946, to provide emergency Food and (36) _____ to children in 'countries that had been devastated by World War II. In 1953, UNICEF became a permanent part of the United Nations System and its name was shortened from the (37) _____ United Nations International Children's Emergency Fund but it has continued to be known by the popular acronym based on this old name. (38) _____ in New York City, UNICEF provides long-term humanitarian and developmental assistance to' children and mother in developing countries. UNICEF is currently focused (39) _____ five primary priorities: Child Survival and Development, Basic Education and Gender Equality, including girl's education, Child protection from (40) _____, exploitation, and abuse, HIV/AIDS and children, and Policy advocacy and partnerships for children's rights. Related areas of UNICEF action include early childhood development, adolescence development and participation; life skills based education and child rights all over the world. A (41) _____ funded agency, UNICEF relies on contributions from governments and private (42) _____. Its programs emphasize developing community-level services to promote the health and well-being of children. Recently, UNICEF has begun partnerships with world-class athletes and teams to promote the organization's work and to (43) _____ funds. UNICEF greeting cards are sold worldwide to support efforts on behalf of children creating a better world where children are happy, healthy and live in dignity. UNICEF selects suitable paintings for reproduction from contemporary artists. Total income to UNICEF for 2006 was $2,781,000,000. UNICEF was (44) _____ the Nobel Peace Prize in 1965 and Prince ofAsturias Award ofConcord in 2006. UNICEF is present in 190 countries and territories around the world. Question 35: A. taken off           B. set up                   C. paid on                  D. pushed back Question 36: A. instrument        B. projects                C. work                      D. healthcare Question 37: A. original             B. ancestor               C. old                         D. relatives Question 38: A. Managed          B. Led                      C. Headquartered      D. Committed Question 39: A. at                      B. with                     C. on                          D. in Question 40: A. violence            B. fun                       C. excitement             D. entertainment Question 41: A. volunteer          B. volunteered          C. voluntary               D. voluntarily Question 42: A. persons             B. patients                C. donors                   D. victims Question 43: A. rise                    B. raise                     C. lift                         D. heighten Question 44: A. complimented   B. awarded               C. won                       D. taken   Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the question below. The countryside of Britain is well known for its beauty and many contrasts: its bare mountains and moorland, its lakes, rivers and woods, and its long, often wild coastline. Many of the most beautiful areas are national parks and are protected from development. When British people think of the countryside they think of farmland, as well as open spaces. They imagine cows or sheep in green fields enclosed by hedges or stone walls, and fields of wheat and barley. Most farmland is privately owned but is crossed by a network of public footpaths. Many people associate the countryside with peace and relaxation. They spend their free time walking or cycling there, or go to the country for a picnic or a pub lunch. In summer people go to fruit farms and pick strawberries and other fruit. Only a few people who live in the country work on farms. Many commute to work in towns. Many others dream of living in the country, where they believe they would have a better and healthier lifestyle. The countryside faces many threats. Some are associated with modern farming practices, and the use of chemicals harmful to plants and wildlife. Land is also needed for new houses. The green belt, an area of land around many cities, is under increasing pressure. Plans to build new roads are strongly opposed by organizations trying to protect the countryside. Protesters set up camps to prevent, or at least delay, the building work. America has many areas of wild and beautiful scenery, and there are many areas, especially in the West in states like Montana and Wyoming, where few people live. In the New England states, such as Vermont and New Hampshire, it is common to see small farms surrounded by hills and green areas. In Ohio, Indiana, Illinois and other Midwestern states, fields of corn or wheat reach to the horizon and there are many miles between towns. Only about 20% of Americans live outside cities and towns. Life may be difficult for people who live in the country. Services like hospitals and schools may be further away and going shopping can mean driving long distances. Some people even have to drive from their homes to the main road where their mail is left in a box. In spite of the disadvantages, many people who live in the country say that they like the safe, clean, attractive environment. But their children often move to a town or city as soon as they can. As in Britain, Americans like to go out to the country at weekends. Some people go on camping or fishing trips, others go hiking in national parks. Question 45: We can see from the passage that in the countryside ofBritain _______ A. it is difficult to travel from one farm to another B. only a few farms are publicly owned C. none of the areas faces the sea D. most beautiful areas are not well preserved Question 46: The word “enclosed” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______ A. surrounded               B. embraced                   C. blocked                     D. rotated Question 47: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an activity of relaxation in the countryside ofBritain? A. Riding a bicycle       B. Going for a walk       C. Going swimming       D. Picking fruit Question 48: What does the word “they” in paragraph 2 refer to? A. Those who dream of living in the country      B. Those who go to the country for a picnic C. Those who commute to work in towns          D. Those who go to fruit farms in summer Question 49: Which of the following threatens the countryside inBritain? A. Protests against the building work                  B. Plants and wildlife C. Modern farming practices                               D. The green belt around cities Question 50: The phrase “associated with” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______ A. separated from         B. supported by             C. related to                   D. referred to Question 51: According to the passage, all of the following are true EXCEPT _______ A. the green belt is under pressure because of the need for land B. the use of chemicals harms the environment of the countryside C. camps are set up by protesters to stop the construction work D. all organizations strongly oppose plans for road construction Question 52: The phrase “reach to the horizon” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______ A. are varied                 B. are endless                 C. are horizontal            D. are limited Question 53: According to the passage, some Americans choose to live in the country because ______ A. their children enjoy country life B. hospitals, schools and shops are conveniently located there C. they enjoy the safe, clean, attractive environment there D. life there may be easier for them Question 54: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage? A. Both British and American people are thinking of moving to the countryside. B. Towns in some Midwestern states in theUS are separated by long distances. C. Many British people think of the country as a place of peace and relaxation. D. The majority of American people live in cities and towns.   Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Long before they can actually speak, babies pay special attention to the speech they hear around them. Within the first month of their lives, babies' responses to the sound of the human voice will be different from their responses to other sorts of auditory stimuli. They will stop crying when they hear a person talking, but not if they hear a bell or the sound of a rattle. At first, the sounds that an infant notices might be only those words that receive the heaviest emphasis and that often occur at the ends of utterances. By the time they are six or seven weeks old, babies can detect the difference between syllables pronounced with rising and falling inflections. Very soon, these differences in adult stress and intonation can influence babies' emotional states and behavior. Long before they develop actual language comprehension, babies can sense when an adult is playful or angry, attempting to initiate or terminate new behavior, and so on, merely on the basis of  cues such as the rate, volume, and melody of adult speech. Adults make it as easy as they can for babies to pick up a language by exaggerating such cues. One researcher observed babies and their mothers in six diverse cultures and found that, in all six languages, the mothers used simplified syntax, short utterances and nonsense sounds, and transformed certain sounds into baby talk. Other investigators have noted that when mothers talk to babies who are only a few months old, they exaggerate the pitch, loudness, and intensity of their words. They also exaggerate their facial expressions, hold vowels longer, and emphasize certain words. More significant for language development than their response to general intonation is observation that tiny babies can make relatively fine distinctions between speech sounds. In other words, babies enter the world with the ability to make precisely those perceptual discriminations that are necessary if they are to acquire aural language. Babies obviously derive pleasure from sound input, too: even as young as nine months they will listen to songs or stories, although the words themselves are beyond their understanding. For babies, language is a sensory-motor delight rather than the route to prosaic meaning that it often is for adults. Question 55: Which of the following can be inferred about the findings described in paragraph 2? A. The mothers observed by the researchers were consciously teaching their babies to speak. B. Babies ignore facial expressions in comprehending aural language. C. Mothers from different cultures speak to their babies in similar ways. D. Babies who are exposed to more than one language can speak earlier than babies exposed to a single language. Question 56: According to the author, why do babies listen to songs and stories, even though they cannot understand them? A. They can remember them easily.                     B. They focus on the meaning of their parents' word. C. They understand the rhythm.                          D. They enjoy the sound. Question 57: The passage mentions all of the followings as the ways adults modify their speech when talking to babies EXCEPT ______________. A. speaking more loudly than normal                  B. speaking with shorter sentences C. giving all words equal emphasis                      D. using meaningless sounds Question 58: The word "diverse" is closest in meaning to ______________. A. stimulating                B. divided                      C. different                    D. surrounding Question 59: The word "They" refers to ______________. A. mothers                     B. investigators              C. words                        D. babies Question 60: Why does the author mention "a bell and a rattle"? A. To give examples of typical toys that babies do not like B. To explain how babies distinguish between different nonhuman sounds C. To contrast the reactions of babies to human and nonhuman sounds D. To give examples of sounds that will cause a baby to cry Question 61: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. The response of babies to sounds other than the human voice B. How babies differentiate between the sound of the human voice and other sounds C. The differences between a baby's and an adult's ability to comprehend language D. How babies perceive and respond to the human voice in their earliest stages of language development Question 62: The word "emphasize" is closest in meaning to ______________. A. leave out                   B. explain                       C. repeat                        D. stress Question 63: What point does the author make to illustrate that babies are born with the ability to acquire language? A. Babies notice even minor differences between speech sounds. B. Babies exaggerate their own sounds and expressions. C. Babies begin to understand words in songs. D. Babies are more sensitive to sounds than are adults. Question 64: The word "noted" is closest in meaning to______________. A. requested                  B. disagreed                   C. observed                    D. theorized  WRITING Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. Question 65: I don’t play tennis as well as Hoa do. Hoa ______________________________________________ Question 66: I last saw Peter when I was inThanhHoa City. I haven’t seen ________________________________________ Question 67: Although she said that she would come, I don’t think she ever will. Despite _________________________________________ Question 68: Most people think Nigel is the best racing driver in the world. Nigel is considered _____________________________________ Question 69: “ Unless I receive her letter tomorrow, I’ll phone her,” saidNam Namsaid that if ______________________________________ Part II: In about 140 words, write a paragraph about the importance of family in your life and your family rules. Đáp án đề thi thử THPTQG môn Tiếng Anh - THPT Nông Cống 1 năm 2015 PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM (8 điểm) Câu số Đáp án Câu số Đáp án Câu số Đáp án 1 A 23 A 45 B 2 C 24 B 46 A 3 B 25 D 47 C 4 A 26 A 48 A 5 B 27 A 49 C 6 C 28 D 50 C 7 D 29 C 51 D 8 A 30 B 52 B 9 A 31 B 53 C 10 B 32 A 54 D 11 C 33 C 55 C 12 C 34 D 56 D 13 B 35 B 57 C 14 D 36 D 58 C 15 C 37 A 59 A 16 D 38 C 60 C 17 C 39 C 61 D 18 A 40 A 62 D 19 A 41 D 63 A 20 B 42 C 64 C 21 C 43 B     22 D 44 B     PHẦN VIẾT (2 điểm) I. (0,5 điểm) Question 65: You play tennis better than I do. Question 66: I haven’t seen Peter since I was inThanhHoaCity Question 67: Despite her saying that she would come, I don’t think she ever will.                        Hoặc Despite the fact that she said that she would come, I don’t think she ever will. Question 68: Nigel is considered to be the the best racing driver in the world. Question 69:Nam said that if he didn’t receive her letter the next day/ the following day/ the day after, he would phone her. II. (1,5 điểm)   Mô tả tiêu chí đánh giá Điểm tối đa 1. Bố cục 0,04   o  Câu đề dẫn chủ đề mạch lạc  o  Bố cục hợp lí rõ ràng phù hợp yêu cầu của đề bài  o  Bố cục uyển chuyển từ mở bài đến kết luận     2. Phát triển ý 0,25   o  Phát triển ý có trình tự logic o  Có dẫn chứng, ví dụ, … đủ để bảo vệ ý kiến của mình   3. Sử dụng ngôn từ  0,30   o  Sử dụng ngôn từ phù hợp nội dung o  Sử dụng ngôn từ đúng văn phong/ thể loại o  Sử dụng từ nối các ý cho bài viết uyển chuyển   4. Nội dung  0,30   o  Đủ thuyết phục người đọc o  Đủ dẫn chứng, ví dụ, lập luận o  Độ dài: Số từ không nhiều hơn hoặc ít hơn so với quy định 5%   5. Ngữ pháp, dấu câu, và chính tả: 0,25   o  Sử dụng đúng dấu câu o  Chính tả: Viết đúng chính tả  - Lỗi chính tả gây hiểu nhầm/ sai lệch ý sẽ bị tính một lỗi (trừ 1% điểm của bài viết)  - Cùng một lỗi chính tả lặp lại chỉ tính là một lỗi o  Sử dụng đúng  thời,  thể, cấu  trúc câu đúng ngữ pháp.  (Lỗi ngữ pháp gây hiểu nhầm/ sai  lệch ý sẽ bị  trừ 1% điểm bài viết.)     Tổng 1,5