CHUYÊN ĐỀ: TEACHING SKILLS TO DO READING COMPREHENSION TESTS Tác giả:Đỗ Thị Thu Minh Giáo viên trường THPT Vĩnh Yên Đối tượng học sinh: Lớp 12, Ôn thi ĐH – CĐ Số tiết dự kiến: 10 tiết 1. Đối tượng bồi dưỡng : Học sinh lớp 12 2. Số tiết dạy dự kiến : 10 3. Hệ thống kiến thức : Skill 1-Answer main idea questions correctly. Skill 2. Answer stated detail questions correctly. Skill 3 :Find “unstated” details Skill 4. Find pronoun referents. Skill 5. Answer implied detail questions correctly. Skill 6. Find definitions from structural clues. Skill 7. Use context to determine meanings of difficult words. Skill 8. Use context to determine meanings of simple words. Skill 9. Determine the tone, purpose, or course TEACHING SKILLS TO DO READING COMPREHENSION TESTS: Each reading passage is often followed by 10 questions of reading comprehension and vocabulary. Topics of the reading passage are varied, but they are often informational subjects such as history, literature, art, architecture, geology, geography, and astronomy. Time is definitely a factor in the Reading Comprehension. Some students, especially average students, note that they are unable to finish all the questions in this section. Others cannot understand what the passage is about, so they do without intention and don’t know surely if their answer is true. Therefore, they need to make the most efficient use of their time in this section to get the highest score. The following method is the best way of attacking a reading passage to get the most questions correct in a limited amount of time. STRAGIES FOR THE READING COMPREHENSION QUESTIONS 1. Skim the reading passage to determine the main idea and the overall organizations of ideas in the passage. You do not need to understand every detail in each passage to answer the questions correctly. It is therefore a waste of time to read the passage with the intent of understanding every single detail before you try to answer the questions. 2. Look ahead at the questions to determine what types of questions you must answer. Each type of question is answered in a different way. 3. Find the section of the passage that deals with each question. The question – type tells you exactly where to look in the passage to find correct answers. - For main ideas questions, look at the first line of each paragraph. - For directly and indirectly answered detail questions, choose a key word in the question, and skim for that key word (or a related idea) in order in the passage. - For vocabulary questions, the questions will tell you where the word is located in the passage. - For overall review questions, the answers are found anywhere in the passage. 4. Read the part of the passage that contains the answers carefully. The answer will probably be in the same sentence (or one sentence before or after) the key word or idea. 5. Choose the best answer to each question from the four answer choices listed in the textbook. The best answer can be chosen according to what is given in the appropriate section of the passage, eliminate definitely wrong answers, and mark the best guess on the answer sheet. The following skills will help students to implement these strategies in the Reading passage of the test. A. QUESTIONS ABOUT THE IDEAS OF THE PASSAGE___________ It is very common for reading passages of the test to have questions about the overall ideas in the passage. The most common type of question asks about the main idea, topic, title, or subject. Skill 1. Answer main idea questions correctly. Students may be asked to identify the topic, subject, title, primary idea, or main idea. These questions are all really asking what primary point that the author is trying to get across in the passage, and it is not difficult to find the main idea by studying the topic sentence, which is most probably found at the beginning of a paragraph. If the passage consists of only one paragraph, students should study the beginning of that paragraph to determine the main idea. If a passage consists of more than one paragraph, students study the beginning to determine the main idea. Example 1. In the Second Semester Test, Grade 12, year 2010-2011, Code AV 121, the Reading comprehension is that: The Asian Beach Games is a multi – sport event held every two years among athletes representing countries from Asia. The games are regulated by the Olympic Council of Asia. The first Games were held in 2008 in Bali, Indonesia. This Games will be composed of sports with strong television appeal such as windsurfing, kite boarding, swimming, beach volleyball, beach handball, beach soccer, and dragon boat racing. The Asian Indoor Games is a multi – sport event held every two years among athletes representing countries from Asia. The Games are regulated by the Olympic Council of Asia. The first Games were held in Bangkok, Thailand. This Games will be composed by sports with TV broadcasting potential and not included in the Asian Games and Winter Asia Games Programs and are not Olympic sports. The sports program will comprise from six to eight exciting sports with strong television appeal, including electronic sports, extreme sports, aerobics, acrobatics, indoor athletics, dance sports, inline hockey, fin swimming, and 25 meters short course swimming. Question 27. The passage is about ………………………… A. The Asian Beach Games and the Asian Indoor Games. B. The Olympic Council of Asia. C. The Asian Games and Winter Asian Games Programs. D. The Asian Indoor Games and Winter Asian Games Programs. In the above given passage, there are four paragraphs. Students should be sure to read the first sentence of each paragraph to determine the subject, title, or main idea. In Example 1, the first sentence of the first paragraph of this passage discusses the Asian Beach Games, and the second paragraph begins with “this Games”, which means that it is about the Asian Beach Games. The first sentence of the third paragraph tells of the Asian Indoor Games, about which the fourth paragraph tells, also beginning with “this Games”. So the whole passage discusses the two kinds of games: the Asian Beach Games and the Asian Indoor Games. Therefore, the best choice is answer A. The following chart outlines the key information that students should remember about main idea questions: MAIN IDEA QUESTIONS HOW TO What is the topic of the passage? IDENTIFY THE What is the subject of the passage? QUESTIONS What is the main idea of the passage? What is the author’s main point in the passage? With what is the author primarily concerned? Which of the following would be the best title? WHERE TO The answer to this type of question can generally be FIND THE determined by looking at the first sentence of each ANSWER paragraph. HOW TO 1. Read the first line of each paragraph. ANSWER THE 2. Look for a common theme or idea in the first QUESTION lines. 3. Pass your eyes quickly over the rest of the passage to check that you really have found the topic sentence(s). 4. Eliminate any definitely wrong answers and choose the best answer from the remaining choices. B. DIRECTLY ANSWERED QUESTIONS________________________ Skill 2. Answer stated detail questions correctly. A stated detail question asks about one piece of information in the passage rather than the passage as a whole. The answers to these questions are generally given in order in the passage, and the correct answer is often a restatement of what is given in the passage. This means that the correct answer often expresses the same idea as what is written in the passage, but the words are not exactly the same. Example 2: In English 10, page 45 and 46, Unit 4 “Special Education”, Part Reading, the second paragraph: At first, there was a lot of opposition from the parents of the disabled children. They used to believe that their children could not learn anything at all. In the first week, only five children attended the class. Gradually more children arrived. Their parents realized that the young teacher was making great efforts to help their poor kids. Task 2: Question 2: At first the parents were ____________ the idea of sending their children to the special class. A. interested in B. opposed to C. satisfied with D. worried about Since in the first sentence of the paragraph, there is the noun “opposition”, we can see from the four answers the verb “opposed” in the answer B, they are in a family. So the answer B is the best one. The following chart outlines the key information that students should remember about stated detail questions: STATED DETAIL QUESTIONS HOW TO According to the passage, … IDENTIFY THE It is stated in the passage … QUESTION The passage indicates that … The author mentions that … Which of the following is true …? WHERE TO The answers to these questions are found in order in FIND THE the passage ANSWER HOW TO 1. Choose a key word in the question. ANSWER THE 2. Skim in the appropriate part of the passage for QUESTION the key word or idea. 3. Read the sentence that contains the key word or idea carefully. 4. Look for the answer that restates an idea in the passage. 5. Eliminate the definitely wrong answers and choose the best answer from the remaining choices. Skill 3. Find “unstated” details. Students will sometimes be asked to find an answer that is not stated or not mentioned or not true in the passage. This type of question really means that three of the answers are stated, mentioned, or true in the passage, while one answer is not. The actual job is to find the three correct answers and then choose the letter of the one remaining answer. The teacher asks students to notice that there are two kinds of answers to this type of question: 1) There are three true answers and one answer that is not discussed in the passage. 2) There are three true answers and one that is false according to the passage. Example 3: In English 12, page 163 and 164, Unit 15 “Woman in Society”, Part Reading, the last paragraph: Today, although their status varies in different countries, women in most parts of the world have gained significant legal rights. The most important of these are: the right to have equal work opportunities and pay to men, the right to vote, and the right to formal education. Task 2: Question 5: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the last paragraph as one of women’s legal rights today? A. the right to hold property B. the right to equal pay C. equal employment opportunity rights D. the right to vote The question asks for the one answer that is not mentioned, so three of the answers are listed in the passage and one is not. Since the right to equal pay, equal employment opportunity rights, the right to vote, are listed in the passage, answers B, C, and D are incorrect. However, the right to hold property is not listed in the passage, so answer D is the best answer to this question. The following chart outlines the key information that students should remember about “unstated” detail questions: “UNSTATED” DETAIL QUESTIONS HOW TO Which of the following is not stated …? IDENTIFY THE Which of the following is not mentioned …? QUESTION Which of the following is not discussed …? All of the following are true except …? WHERE TO The answers to these questions are found in order in FIND THE the passage. ANSWER HOW TO 1. Choose a key word in the question. ANSWER THE 2. Scan in the appropriate place in the passage for QUESTION the key word (or related idea). 3. Read the sentence that contains the key word or idea carefully. 4. Look for answers that are definitely true according to the passage. Eliminate those answers. 5. Choose the answer that is not true or not discussed in the passage. Skill 4. Find pronoun referents. In the Reading comprehension of the test, you will sometimes be asked to determine which noun a pronoun refers to. In this type of question it is important to understand that a noun is generally used first in a passage, and the pronoun that refers to it comes after. Whenever you are asked which noun a pronoun refers to, you should look before the pronoun to find the noun. Example 4: In the Second Semester Test, Grade 12, year 2011-2012, Code AV 101, the Reading comprehension is that: Arctic Ice May Disappear in a Decade A new report on global warming predicts the frozen Arctic Ocean will soon be like a normal sea in the summers. There are shocking changes happening in the polar environment and its fragile eco-systems. For millions of years, the sea around the North Pole has been frozen all year round. Recent research from the World Wildlife Fund (WWF) and the Catlin Atlantic Survey show things are changing fast. They predict that within a decade, the Arctic will be largely ice-free in the summer. They base their prediction on the rate at which the sea ice is currently thinning. The lead researcher, professor Peter Wadhams said, “The area is now more likely to become open water each summer, bringing forward the potential date when the summer sea ice will be completely gone.” An ice-free Arctic will have consequences for the whole world’s weather patterns. The Arctic sea ice is a key part of the Earth’s climate system. Experts call it Earth’s “refrigerator”. They said that as it disappears, the world will become a lot warmer. Scientists are still unclear exactly what changes there will be to our weather. Forecasters predict an increase in all kinds of disasters and extreme weather events. These include massive flooding, much more dangerous hurricanes and the spread of the world’s deserts. These new findings provide an urgent call for world leaders to act. The timing of the WWF report is a reminder to those attending the UN climate summit in Copenhagen in December. Rich countries will face pressure to agree to reduce their carbon emissions by40 per cent by 2020. Question: 33. What does the word “it” in paragraph 2 refer to? A. the Arctic sea ice B. climate system C. refrigerator D. the Earth To answer this question, students should look before the pronoun it for singular nouns that pronoun could refer to. An ice sea Arctic, the Arctic sea ice, the Earth’s climate system come before the pronoun, so they are possible answers. Then students should try the three possible answers in the sentence in place of the pronoun. From the following sentence students should notice that as it disappears, the world will become a lot warmer , so the best answer to this question is answer A. The following chart outlines the key information that students should remember about pronoun referents: HOW TO IDENTIFY THE QUESTION WHERE TO FIND THE ANSWER HOW TO ANSWER THE QUESTION PRONOUN REFERENTS The pronoun “…” in line X refers to which of the following? The line where the pronoun is located is generally given in the question. The noun that the pronoun refers to is generally found before the pronoun. 1. Find the pronoun in the passage. (The line where the pronoun can be found is generally stated in the question.) 2. Look for nouns that come before the pronoun. 3. Read the part of the passage before the pronoun carefully. 4. Eliminate any definitely wrong answers and choose the best answer from the remaining choices. C. INDIRECTLY ANSWER QUESTIONS_________________________ Some questions of the Reading Comprehension section of the test will require answers that are not directly stated in the passage. To answer these questions correctly, you will have to draw conclusions from information that is given in the passage. Two common types of indirectly answer questions are: (1) implied detail questions and (2) transition questions. Skill 5. Answer implied detail questions correctly. You will sometimes be asked to answer a question by drawing a conclusion from a specific detail are details in the passage. Questions of this type contain the words implied, inferred, likely, or probably to let you know that the answer to the question is not directly stated. In this type of question it is important to understand that you do not have to “pull the answer out of thin air.” Instead, some information will be given in the passage, and you will draw a conclusion from that information. Example 5: In English 10, page 45 and 46, Unit 4 “Special Education”, Part Reading, the second paragraph is : At first, there was a lot of opposition from the parents of the disabled children. They used to believe that their children could not learn anything at all. In the first week, only five children attended the class. Gradually more children arrived. Their parents realized that the young teacher was making great efforts to help their poor kids. Task 2: Question 3: It can be inferred from the second paragraph of the reading passage that there has been ______________________. A. a change in the parents’ attitude towards the class B. a lot of protest from the parents against the class C. a feeling of doubt in the teacher’s ability D. a belief in the parents’ opposition To answer this question, students should refer to the part of the passage where it states that in the past the parents had a lot of opposition, but now they don’t, so the answer B is incorrect. It also says that their parents realized that the young teacher was making great efforts to help their poor kids, which means the parents don’t have the feeling of doubt in the teacher’s ability, then the answer C is incorrect, too. The sentence “Gradually more children arrived” shows that the parents have a change in the parents’ attitude towards the class, so the answer D can’t be correct and the best answer is A. The following chart outlines the key information that students should remember about implied detail questions: HOW TO IDENTIFY THE QUESTION WHERE FIND ANSWER HOW ANSWER QUESTION TO THE TO THE IMPLIED DETAIL QUESTION It is implied in the passage that … It can be inferred from the passage that … It is most likely that … What probably happened …? The answers to these questions are found in order in the passage. 1. Choose a key word in the passage. 2. Scan the passage for the key word (or a related idea). 3. Carefully read the sentence that contains the key word. 4. Look for a answer that could be true, according to that sentence. D. VOCABULARY QUESTIONS________________________________ In the Reading Comprehension section of the test, there will be a number of vocabulary questions. To answer this type of question, it is of course useful if you know the meaning of the word that the test is testing. However, it is not always necessary for you to know the meaning of the word; often there are skills that you can use to help you find the correct answer to the question: (1) finding definitions from structural clues; (2) determining meanings from the word parts, and (3) using context clues to determine meanings. Skill 6. Find definitions from structural clues. When you are asked to determine the meaning of a word in the Reading Comprehension section of the test, it is possible (1) that the passage provides information about the meaning of the word, and (2) that there are structural clues to tell you that the definition of a word is included in the passage. Example 6: In law, a nuisance is an act that has no legal justification and which interferes with the safety or comfort of other people. Public nuisances, those which are injurious to the community, may be prosecuted as crimes. Question: A nuisance is _______________. A. a protective law B. an injurious act C. a legal justification D. a safety precaution We should choose answer B because a “nuisance” is an act which interferes with the safety of others, that is, an injurious act. The following chart outlines the key information that students should remember about structural clues to help you understand unknown vocabulary words: HOW TO IDENTIFY THE QUESTION TYPES OF CLUES WHERE FIND ANSWER HOW TO THE TO STRUCTURAL CLUES What is …? What is the meaning of …? What is true about …? Punctuation: comma, parentheses, dashes Restatement: or, that is, in other words, i.e. Examples: such as, for example, e.g. Information to help you determine what something means will generally be found after the punctuation clue, the restatement clue, or the example clue. 1. Find the word in the passage. ANSWER THE QUESTION 2. Locate any structural clues. 3. Read the part of the passage after the structural clue carefully. 4. Eliminate any definitely wrong answer and choose the best answer from the remaining choices. Skill 7. Use context to determine meanings of difficult words. On the test you will sometimes be asked to determine the meanings of the difficult words, a word that you are not expected to know. In this case, the passage will give you a clear indication of what the word means. Example 7: In the Second Semester Test, Grade 12, year 2011-2012, Code AV 101, the Reading comprehension is as follows: Arctic Ice May Disappear in a Decade A new report on global warming predicts the frozen Arctic Ocean will soon be like a normal sea in the summers. There are shocking changes happening in the polar environment and its fragile eco-systems. For millions of years, the sea around the North Pole has been frozen all year round. Recent research from the World Wildlife Fund (WWF) and the Catlin Atlantic Survey show things are changing fast. They predict that within a decade, the Arctic will be largely ice-free in the summer. They base their prediction on the rate at which the sea ice is currently thinning. The lead researcher, professor Peter Wadhams said, “The area is now more likely to become open water each summer, bringing forward the potential date when the summer sea ice will be completely gone.” An ice-free Arctic will have consequences for the whole world’s weather patterns. The Arctic sea ice is a key part of the Earth’s climate system. Experts call it Earth’s “refrigerator”. They said that as it disappears, the world will become a lot warmer. Scientists are still unclear exactly what changes there will be to our weather. Forecasters predict an increase in all kinds of disasters and extreme weather events. These include massive flooding, much more dangerous hurricanes and the spread of the world’s deserts. These new findings provide an urgent call for world leaders to act. The timing of the WWF report is a reminder to those attending the UN climate summit in Copenhagen in December. Rich countries will face pressure to agree to reduce their carbon emissions by40 per cent by 2020. Question 32: The word “fragile” in the passage mostly means ………………….. A. easily broken B. easily damaged C. physically weak ___D. extremely complicated To answer this question, students should look at the sentence that contains the word fragile. It comes before the word eco-system, which means that it is an adjective of the latter word. So it cannot be easily broken, physically weak or extremely complicated, then answers A, C, and D are incorrect. As a result, answer B is the best answer to this question. The following chart outlines the key information that students should remember about vocabulary questions containing difficult words: VOCABULARY QUESTIONS CONTAINING DIFFICULT WORDS HOW TO “What is the meaning …?” IDENTIFY THE “Which of the following is closest in meaning to …?” QUESTION The word is a difficult word, one that you probably do not know. WHERE TO The question usually tells you in which line of the FIND THE passage the word can be found. ANSWER HOW TO 1. Find the word in the passage. ANSWER THE 2. Read the sentence that contains the word QUESTION carefully. 3. Look for context clues to help you understand the meaning. 4. Choose the answer that the context indicates. Skill 8. Use context to determine meanings of simple words. You will sometimes be asked to determine the meaning of a simple word, a word that you see often in everyday English. In this type of question, you should not give the normal, everyday meaning of the word; instead, the test wants to know the meaning of the word in this situation. Example 8: A line from the passage: ….. He put his answer this way …. Question: The word “put” is closest in meaning to which of the following? A. placed B. set C. expressed D. handed In this type of question, students should understand that put is a normal, everyday word, and they are not being asked to give the regular meaning of a normal, everyday word. Because the primary meaning of to put is to place, answer A is not the correct answer. To answer this type of question students must see which of the answers best fits into the sentence in the passage. We cannot place an answer or set an answer or hand an answer, but we can express an answer, so answer C is the best answer to this question. The following chart outlines the key information that students should remember about vocabulary questions containing simple words. VOCABULARY QUESTIONS CONTAINING SIMPLE WORDS HOW TO “What is the meaning …?” IDENTIFY THE “Which of the following is closest in meaning to …?” QUESTION The word is a simple word, one that you see often in everyday English. WHERE TO The question usually tells you in which line of the FIND THE passage the word can be found. ANSWER HOW TO 1. Find the word in the passage. ANSWER THE 2. Read the sentence that contains the word QUESTION carefully. 3. Look for context clues to help you understand the meaning. 4. Choose the answer that the context indicates. E. OVERALL REVIEW QUESTIONS____________________________ Often in the Reading Comprehension section of the test, the last question (or two) for a particular reading passage is an overall question, one that asks about the passage as a whole rather than one small detail. The overall review questions are generally not main idea questions; instead they ask about some other aspect of the passage as a whole. The most common types of overall review questions are (1) questions that ask where in the passage something is found; (2) questions about the tones of the passage; (3) questions about the author’s purpose in writing the passage, or (4) questions about which course the passage might be a part of. Skill 9. Determine the tone, purpose, or course. Other types of overall review questions occur occasionally in the Reading Comprehension section of the test. Possible questions of this type are those that ask about: (1) the tone of the passage; (2) the author’s purpose in writing the passage, and A question about the tone is asking if the author is showing any emotion in his or her writing. The majority of the passages on the test are factual passages presented without any emotion; the tone of this type of passage could be simply informational, explanatory, or factual. Sometimes on the test, however, the author shows some emotion, and you must be able to recognize that emotion to answer a question about tone correctly. If the author is being funny, then the tone might be humorous; if the author is making fun of something, the tone might be sarcastic; if the author feels strongly that something is right or wrong, the tone might be impassioned. A question about purpose is asking what the author is trying to do in the passage. You can draw a conclusion about the author’s purpose by referring to the main idea and the organization of details in the passage. For example, if the main idea is that George Washington’s early life greatly influenced his later career and if the details give a history of his early life, the author’s purpose could be to show how George Washington’s early life influenced his later career. However, the answer to a purpose question is often considerably more general than the main idea. A more general author’s purpose for the main idea about George Washington would be to demonstrate the influence of early experiences on later life (without any mention of George Washington). Example 9: In English 10, page 45 and 46, Unit 4 “Special Education”, Part Reading: A TEACHER IN A SPECIAL CLASS Like other teachers, Pham Thu Thuy enjoys her teaching job. However, her class is different from other classes. The twenty-five children, who are learning how to read and write in her class, are disabled. Some are deaf, some dumb and others mentally retarded. Most of the children come from large and poor families, which prevents them from having proper schooling. At first, there was a lot of opposition from the parents of the disabled children. They used to believe that their children could not learn anything at all. In the first week, only five children attended the class. Gradually more children arrived. Their parents realized that the young teacher was making great efforts to help their poor kids. Watching Thuy taking a class, one can see how time-consuming the work is. During a maths lesson, she raised both arms and opened up her fingers one by one until all ten stood up. She then closed the fingers one by one. She continued the demonstration until the children realized they had just learned how to add and subtract. The children have every reason to be proud of their efforts. They know a new world is opening up for them. Question 5: The writer’s attitude towards Thuy’s work in the passage can be described as_____________. A. humorous B. angry C. suspicious D. admiring The question asks about the tone (writer’s attitude) of the passage. To determine the tone of a passage, students should look for any indications of emotion on the part of the writer. In this passage, the writer shows the great efforts the teacher has made to help the poor kids who later see a new horizon opening up for them. Therefore, the best answer to this question is answer D. There is nothing in the passage to indicate any humor A, anger B, or suspicion C on the part of the writer. The following chart outlines the key information that students should remember about tone, purpose, or course questions: HOW IDENTIRY QUESTION WHERE FIND ANSWER TO THE TO THE TONE, PURPOSE, OR COURSE Tone: What is the tone of the passage? Purpose: What is the author’s purpose in this passage? Tone: There will be clues throughout the passage that the author is showing some emotion rather than just presenting facts. Purpose: Draw a conclusion about the purpose form the main idea and supporting details. HOW TO Tone: 1. Skim the passage looking for clues that ANSWER THE the QUESTION author is showing some emotion . 2. Choose the answer that identifies the emotion. Purpose: 1. Study the main idea in the topic sentence and the details used to support the main idea. 2. Draw a conclusion about the purpose. B. READING COMPREHENSION EXERCISES Reading Exercise 1: Read the two passages and choose the best answer for each of the questions that follow. A. Before ballpoint pens or fountain pens, pens were made from goose faethers. These goose feathers, called quills, were sharpened and dipped into inkwells, where they absorbed enough ink to write a few words. It wass necessary to keep an inkwell very close by, as frequent dipping was necessary. These quill pens were one of the earliest products “designed”specifically for left and right- handed people. Fathers from the left wing of the goose worked best for the right- handers because of the way that the feathers arched. Feathers from the right wing were preferred by left- handers. 1. Which of the following is the best title for this passage? a.Early Ballpoint and Fountain pens b. Quill Pens for Lefties and Righties c. Where quill Pens Came from. d. Various Users for goose Feathers. 2. The passage indicates that a quill pen could hold enough ink to write……….. a. one or two pages b. for about one hour c. a couple of words d. numerous sentences 3. Look at the word designed in paragraph two. It could be best the replaced by…………. a. defined b. devised c. deformed d. deferred 4. Which of the following is NOT true about quill pens, according to the passage? a. Left- handers were unable to use quill pens. b. Left- handers people generally preferred quills from the right wing. c. Right- handers could use quill pens d. Right- handed – people generally preferred quills from the left wing. 5. It can be inferred from the passage that quill pens……….. a. are still used regularlytoday b. are referred over ballpoint pens c. are the best pens for the left- handers. d.are not longer used much B. When you can’t touch the car door handle or sit on the seat because they are so hot, you are meeting solar energy. We can use this heaat from the sun to keep us warm and give us electricity. We know that we will someday run out of the fossil fuels, such as oil, gas and coal. And we are now spending lots of money to learn how to put nuclear energy to work for us. But we knoe that the radioactive wastes that result from using nuclear energy can be very dangerous. We need a supply of energy that will not pollute our air or water, that will not cost too much and thatwill not run out. One of the sources we are considering is the sun. Enough sunshine falls on the United States in one minute to give the whole country all the energy, we’ll be able to make as much electricity as we need. And it wouldn’t make smog in our air or poison our water. We could collect the sun’s heat in big sun farms. A good place for a sun farm is on the desert, where the sky is clear and there is plenty of sunshine and only a little rain. People could set up acres of glass mirrors to focus the sun’s rays on a special surface that would become very hot. Or they could put out acres and acres of glass- covered collectors called solar energy traps to gather the sun’s heat. The heat would melt a special metal;this melted metal would below to a largetank of melted salt; the melted salt would then take the heat from the metal and hold it. This stored heat could then be used like the heat we get rom burning fossil fuels. It would make steam and turn generators to make electricity. There would even be enough heat to make steam during the night and on cloudy days. The trouble is that collecting the sun’s heat in these ways is expensive right now. We need to find out how to make these methods cost les before we can have big sun farms on our deserts. Scientists are trying to make a solar energy collector that they hope will be cheap enough for anybody to put on a house- either on the roof or in the wall. The inventors are making these solar collectors in kits for people who want to do- it themselves. 6. What is the subject of this selection? a.Kinetic energy b. nuclear energy c. Mechanical enegy d. Solar energy 7. According to this article,…….. a. the sun is a good source of energy b. smog does not pollute the air c. nuclear energy is safe and clean d. many people use solar energy. 8. The best place for a sun farm is the……… a. desert b. seashore c. moutains d. forest 9. Scientists…… a. have final found a safe way to use nuclear energy. b. Know that fossil fuels willlast forver c. Are still experimenting with energy from the sun d. Have found the cheap way to collect the sun’s heat 10. The writer feels that nuclear energy…… a. will soon run out b. is cheap c. is clean d. can be harmful Exercise 2: Read the two passages and choose the best answer for each of the questions that follow. A. From the start of his career as a writer, Mark Twain was fascinated with inventions. As a result, he chose to spend much of his available income on various types of inventions, generally without much success. In fact, he lost most of the money he invested. By 1887, the 49- year- old author had invested most of his money in one project, the Paige typesetting machine. Twain expected the Paige machine to be completed in 1989. Unfortunately, the machine was never completely finished, and by the early 1980s, Twain kneww he was in serious financial situation. He worked hard to take care of his problems by producing a number of books is a row he wrote A Connecticut Yankee in King Arthur’s Court (1892), An American Claimant (1892), Tom Sawyer Abroad (1893), and Pudd’nhead Wilson 91894). However, all of this work did not solve his financial problems, and he was forced to declare bankruptcy. 1.This passage mainly discusses how an author…. a.invested poorly in inventions b. wrote so many books c. created his famous work d. created a successful invention 2. According to the passage, what interested Mark Twain? a. Giving investment advice b. Work as a typesetter c.The world of banking d. New ideas and products 3. Where was the majority of Twain’s money in 1887? a.In a bank account b. Invested in various inventions c.Invested in one invention d. Invested in his writings 4. It can be inferred from the passage that the Paige machine was……… a. created by Mark Twain b. ready in 1890s c. close to being completed d. a great success 5. Look at the expression in a row in paragraph 2. This expression could best be replaced by. a. one after another b. very quickly c. on time d. in a straight line B. The English names of the last months of the Gregorian calendar ( September, October, November, December) have rather interesting histories. The Gregorian calendar is a twelve- month calendar, so these months are the ninth, tenth, eleventh, and twelfth months respectively. However their name do not reflect their positioning in the calendar. The name September comes from the Latin word septum, which means seven. This month was originally the name of the seventh rather than the ninth month. Similarly, the name October comes from the Latin oct( eight); the name November comes from the Latin novem (nine); the name December comes from the Latin decem(ten) 1.The main topic of this passage is… a. the origin of certain month names b. the Gregorian calendar c. the number in Latin d. ten- and twelve- month calendar 2. The first month on the Gregorian calendar is probably. a. March b. May c. January d. December 8. The passage states that in the orginal version of the calendar, September was the name of…. a. the sixth month b. the seventh month c. the eighth month d. the ninth month 9. It can be inferred from the passage that November… a. used to be the ninth month of the year b. is no longer part of the Gregorian calendar c. has always been the eleventh month d. was not part of the orginal Gregorian calendar 10. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage about December? a. it is the twelfth month of the Gregorian calendar b. Its name is derived from a Latin word c. Its meaning comes from the number ten d. It has thirtyone days Exercise 3: Read the following two passages and choose the best answer A, B, C or D for each of the questions. A. I get a lot of letters at this time of the year from many people who have a cold which won’t go away. There are many different stories about how to prevent or cure a cold. That’s why it is difficult to know what to do. We know that colds arerarely “ dangerous”, except for weak people such as the elderly or young babies. These people are always uncomfortable and usually most unpleasant. Of course, you can buy a lot of medicines. They will help to make your cold less unpleasant. However, you must remember that nothing can actually cure a cold or make it go away faster. Any strong medicine used to make you feel bettercould be dangerous if you are already taking drugs for some other illness. Thus, check with your chemistor doctor to see whether they are all right for you. And remember they might make yo sleepy. Please don’t try to drive if they do! Lastly, whatever you may be told about magic foods or drinks, the best answer is to keep yourself strong and healthy. You’ll have less chance of catching a cold. And if you do, it sholdn’t be so bad. 1.The writer of the pasage wants……… A to write in anamusing way B. to give generaladvice C. to complain about his/ her health D. to persuade people to have more foods and drinks 2.Colds are……… A. very dangerous B. not dangerous at all C. unpleasant D. usually fatal 3. What is the key to avoid catching a cold? A. Having magic foods and drinks B. Sleeping a lot C. Taking a lot of medicine D. Keeping yourself strong and healthy 4. The word “ most” as used in line 5 is closest in meaning to………… A. very B. in the highest degree C. greatest D. absolutely 5. The writer of the passage is probably………….. A. a nurse B. a health care specialist a novelist D. a reporter B. If you were to stop people in the street and ask them to name a ship that had been sunk, it is likely that nearly all of them would say the Titalic,. For the sinking of the Titalic was, if not the most tragic, certainly the most famous sea disaster in the history of ocean travel. The Titalic was built as luxuryliner, intended to be the fastest in the world, and a great deal of publicity had surrounded it. The last point probably explains why so many important people from all walks of life were on the boat when it went down. The Titalic was on its mainden voyage to America in 1912 when it struck an iceberg anh sank. Of its, 2,300 passengers, more than two- third were drowned. Because the Titalic was thought to be virtually unsinkabl, no one was prepared for the tragedy. There was total panic as very fewof the passengers had botheredto learn the necessary drill in the event of trouble. There was serve shortage of lifeboats and those that were launchedwere still half- empty. The one point of calm was to be foundin the ballroom where the band carried on playing right to the end. What makes the sinking of the Titalic even more tragic is the fact that warnings of icebergs had been sent, yet the linerwas still continuing at full distress signal. One good thing did, however, result from the disaster. The whole questions of safety at sea was looked into, resulting measure, including stricter lifeboat regulations and the establishment of an iceberg patrol. 6. The sinking of the Titalic was…………. A. the most tragic sea disaster B. the most historic sea disaster C. the most famous sea disaster D. the first great disaster 7. Why were so many important people in board? A. The Titalic had received a lot of publicity. B. The Titalic was luxury liner C. It was the fastest liner in the world. D. They wanted to go to America. 8. The lifeboats were.. A. too short B. launched too soon C. half finished D. poorly enquipped 9. The chances of disaster were increased because………… A. no warnings had been sent B. the dance band was playing too loud C. the Titalic wastravalling too fast D. there was no distress calls. 10. The positive result of the disaster was that…… A. a full inquiry was made B. lifeboats were made larger C. a program of iceberg destruction was started D. sea travel was made safer Exercise 4: Read the two passages and choose the best answer for each of the questions that follow. A. TEA OR COFFEE The Boston Tea Party did more than just helped start a war.It helped change the habits and taste of the North American people. It turned tea drinkers into coffee drinkers. Coffee and tea are both products of plants that grow in the tropics. When these beverages were introduced in Europe during the 1600s, they became very profitable busunesses. Coffee reached England before tea did, but once the English tasted tea, it became favorite mealtime drink. English people were soon buying about two pounds of tea leaves per person per year. English people who went to North America as colonists took along their taste for tea. They preferred it to coffeeuntill about 1773. In that year, the British Parliament passed the Tea Act, a law that helped to push the cololists into war againstthe mother country. Among cololists, tea became a symbol of unfair taxation and of England’s attempts to contgrol all trading with the colonies. The resentment of the cololists was so strong that once several groups of them boarded English ships in BostonHArbour and threw bales of tea into the ocean. After this ‘ Boston Tea Party’ drinking tea was called unpatriotic by the colonists. They turned to coffee as their beverage. Today tea is still the favorite drink in England. On the other side of the Atlantic, things are different. The people of the United States drink about three times as many cups of coffee as cups of tea. 1.While it is not directly started, the article suggests that… A. tea drinkers might go to war B. the tastes of people can change C. the colonists were very strong D. both tea nd coffee are good for the health 2. Coffee and tea plants grow in…………. A. Great Britain B. The tropics C. Boston D. both A and C 3. Tea became a a symbol of………….. A. a good, hot drink B. parties in Boston C. unfair taxation D. a wealthy country 4. Why was the Tea Act not a good idea? A. Because it helped to push the colonists into war B. Because it made coffee become too popular. C. Because it made English people visit the tropics. D. Because people didn’t obey it. 5. On the whole, the article tells about………… A. beverages in Europe in the 1600s B. England’s resentment of taxes C. the favorite drink in England. D. one reason why Americans drink coffee. B. In 776 B. C, the first Olympic Games were held at the food of Mount Olympus to honour the Greek’s chief god, Zerus. The warn climate for outdoor activities, the need for preparedness in war, and their lifestyle caused the Greeks to create competitive sports. Only the elite and military could prticipate at first, but later the games were open to all free Greek maleswho had no criminal record. The Greeks emphasized physicals fitness and strengthin their educationof yourths. Therefore, contests in jumping, running, discus and javelinthrowing, boxing, and horse and chariot racing were held individual cities, and the winners competed every four yearsat Mount Olympus. Winnerswere greatlyhonoured by having olive wreaths placed on their heads and having poems sung about their deeds. Originally these contests were held as games of friendship, and any wars in progress were halted to allow the games to take place. They also helped to strengthen bonds among competitors and the different cities represented. The Greeks attached so much importance to the games that they calculated time in four year cycles called “Olympiads”, dating from 776 B.C. The contests coicided with relgious festivities and constitued an allout effort on the part of the participants to please the gods. Anyone who disobeyed the rules were dismissed and seriously punished. These athletes brought shame not only to themselves but also to the city they represented. 6. Why were the Olympic Games held? A.To stop wars B. To crown the best athletes C. To honour Zeus D. To sing song about the athletes 7. Approximately how many years ago did these games originate? A. 800 years B. 1,200 years C. 2,300 years D. 2,800 years 8. The word “halted” in line 11 means nearly the same as……….. A. started B. fixed C. stopped D. encouraged 9. What is an “ Olympiad”? A. The time it took to finish a war B. The time took to finish the games C. The time between games D. The time it took the athletes to train. 10. What is the main idea of this passage? A. Physiccal fitness was anintegral part of the lives of the acient Greeks. B. THE Greeks severely punished those who did not participate in the games C. The Greeks had always encouraged everyone to participate in the games D. The Greeks had the games coincide with religious festivities. Exercise 5: Read the two passages and choose the best answer for each of the questions that follow. A. Jan Dibbets may someday have his work revered as much as his Dutch predecessors: Verneer, Van Gogh, and Rembrandt. At a time when the trends in art are toward abstraction and minimalism, Dibbetes’ work intergrates these two dispatate trends into one remarkable whole. In one series of composite works, he arranged sections of architectural photographs into rounded patterns. Then, with pen and ink and watercolors, he connected the segments together into 360- degree circular forms blending the abstract with the real and the imagined. The imaginary images resemble the views of ceiling in gothic, baroque, and neoclassical buildings as they might be seen from the ground floor. 1.As used in line 2, what is the meaning of the word “time”? A.season B. period C. cetury D. invetal 2.The word “ disparate” in line 3 is closest in meaning to…….. A. similar B. unspoken C. different D. unknown 3. The word “ neo- classical” as used in the last sentence refers to…… A. trends in art B. museum decorations C. artistic pattens D. architectural styles 4. As decribed in the passage, Dibbetes used all of the following elememts except. A. pen and ink B. architectural photographs C. water colors D. still- life drawing 5. What does this passage mainly discus? A. the life of Jan Dibbetes B. new forms of art created by Dibbetes C. an exhibite of abstract art D. an art that follows the style of Verneer, Van Gogh, and Rembrandt B. When I open the first “Body Shop”in 1976 my only object was to earn enough to feed my children. Tgoday “ The Body Shop” is an international company rapidly growing all around the world.. In the yeaars since we began I have learned a lot. Much of what I have learned will be found in this book, for I believe that we, ad a company, have something worth saying about how to run a successful business without giving up what we really believe in. It’s npot a normal business book, nor is it just about life. The massage is that to succeed in business you have to be different. Business, as in life, I need to enjoy myself, to have a feeling of family and to feel excited by the unexpected. I have always wanted the people who work for “ The Body Shop” to feel the same way. Now this book sends these ideas of mine out into the world, make them public. I’d like to think there are no limits to our ‘ family’, no limits to what can be done. I find that an exciting thought. I hope you do, too. 6. What is the writer’s main purpose in writing this text? A. To tell the reader her life. B. To introduce her ideas to the reader. C. To explain how international companies operate. D. To tell the reader how she brought up her family. 7. What would someone learn from this text? A. How to make a lot of money B. how to write a book about business C. What’s the writer’s family like D. What’s the writer’s book is about 8. How does the writer feel about the business she run? A.She doesn’t care about success if her children are fed B. She just runs it for her own entertainment. C. It is not like any other company. D. It is likely to become even more successful. 9. What kind of workers does the writer like to employ? A. Workers who can explain her ideas B. Workers who get on well with the public. C. Workers who have the same attitudes as she does D. Workers who have their own families 10. What kind of person does the writer seem to be? A. She seems to be someone with strong opinions B. She doesn’t seem to be confident C. She is mainly interested in making money D. She sees running a business as just a job Exercise 6: Read the following two passages and choose the best answer A, B, C or D for each of the questions. The World Trade Organization (WTO), founded of January 1, 1995, aims to encourage international trade to flow as freely as possible, making sure that trade agreements are respectes and that any disputes can be settled. In the five years since its founding, the WTO has become well known as one of the world’s most powerful economic organizations, taking its place alongside the World Bank and International Monetary Fund. The system of global rules for international trade , however, dates back half a century to 1948 when the General Agreement on Tarriffs and Trade ( GATT) was formed after World War II. As time went by, it became clear that the GATT had two major drawbacks – the limited areas of trade it covered, and the lack of an effective system to settle disputes. After seven years of trade talks ending in 1994, the so- called Uruguay Round finally gave birth to the WTO, complete with an effective system to settle disputes and to form new rules covering trade in services and intellectual property. Even after seven years of talks and with 22, 500 pages of agreements reached, problems remained, especially in the difficult- to- deal- with areas of agriculture and services. 1.WTO and GATT are…… A.acronyms B. synonyms C. antonyms D. homonyms 2. What is the purpose of the WTO? A. to encourage international trade to flow freely B. To make sure that trade agreements are respected C. to settle any disputes D D. All of the above 3. The writer thinks that the WTO has become A. more powerful than any other economic organizations B. the world’smost powerful economic organization. C. one of the world’s most powerful economic organizations. D. less powerful than World Bank and International Monetary Fund. 4.According to the passage, the GATT stopped working……. A. in 1948 B. in 1994 C. after the World War ended D. during the seven years of the Uruguay Round talk 5. the word “it’ in bold refers to…………. A. the WTO B. the GATT C. the World Bank D. theInternational Monetary 6. The WTO is better than the GATT in that…… A. it can settle disputes in more areas of international trade. B. it enables its members to sign agreements more easily C. it deals with problems in agriculture and sevices more effectively. D. it pays more attention to serviceand intellectual properly 7. The word” went by” could best replaced by……… A. flew B. flowed C.passed D. past 8. The word “drawbacks” in paragraph 1 means…… A. weak points B. strong points C. improvements D. changes 9. According to the last paragraph, which of the following statements is true? A. The WTO is the world’s most powerful economic organization. B.The GATT was founed in Uruguay in 1995 C. The WTO has an effectivesystem to settle disputes and to form new rules. D. All the countries in the world are member nations of the WTO. 10. Which of the following is not true about the WTO? A. It has an effective system to settle disputes. B. It can solve all problems in the world. C. It has new rules to cover trade in services and intellectual properly. D. It makes international trade agreements respected. Exercise 7: Read the following passage and choose the best answer A, B, C or D for each of the questions. When the first white men came to America, they found vast amounts of natural resources of tremendous value. Forests covered a large part of the nation; later gas, oil andminerals were found in unbelievable amounts. There was a great abundance of very fertile soil. Forests , prainries, steams and rivers abounded with wildlife. So vast were these sources that it seemed that they could never be used up. So forests were destroyed to make way for farmland. Grasslands and prainries were plowe and harrowd. Minerals and oil were used in great quantitiesto supply a young industrial nation. Almost every river became the scene of factories, mills and power companies. Mammals and birds were slaughtered for food and sport. Within a short time, the result of obvious. Flood caused millionsof dollars worth of damageyearly. The very fertile soil washed away or blew up in great clouds. The seemingly inexhaustible oil and minerals showed signs of depletion. Rivers were filled with silt from eroding farms and wastes from disappeared, and some mammals seemed on the verge of going. Future timber shortages were predicted. In short, Americans soon came to realize that some of conservation program must be set up, if future as well as present Americans were to share in the resources that are the heritage of every American. 1.The title that best expresses the main theme or subject of this election is………. A.What the first whote men found in America. B. The loss of topsoil C. The cause of timber shortage D. the story of America’s natural recourses. 2.It seemed to be early American settles that………………… A. fertile sol was scarce B. the natural resources were inexhaustible C. forests should not be cut D. there was a shortage ofminerals. 3. The use of America’s natural recourses by the early settles was……….. A. careless B. scientific C. unbelievable D. predicted 4. much of the fertile soil of America has…….. A. sunk deep into the earth B.been covered by lake C. been eroded by wind and wate D. become the sense of factories 5. According to the passage, all the followings are true EXCEPT. A. They early American settlers used a lot of minerals and oil. B. They kille animals for food and sport. C. They grew different kinds of plants in prairies. D. They plowed and harrowed grasslands and prairies. 6.the word “abounded with” could best replaced by……. A. were abundant in B. were rich with C. were plentful of D. were a lot of 7. The word “ silt” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to……… A. dust B. soil C. mud D. land 8. One reason why many of our rivers are no longer suitable living places for fish is that A. too manyfish have been caught B. a conservation program has been set up C. floods have caused much damage. D. factories have dumped waste into the rivers. 9. Some species of birds and mammmals seemed……… A. to become ixtinct B. to die C. to be killed D. to be slaughtered 10. Americans soon came to realize that………… A. They should stop killing animals for food. B. They must give up exploiting minerals. C. They shouldn’t reclaim the land D. they must establish a coservation program. Exercise 8: Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each of the questions. Aging is the process of growing old. It occurs eventualy in every living thing provided , of course, that an illness or acident does not kill it prematurely. The most familiar outward signs of aging may be seen in old paople, such as the graying of the hair and the wrinkling of the skin. Signs of aging in a pet dog or cat include lass of playfullness and energy., a decline in hearing and eyesight, or even a slight graying of the coat. Plants age too, but the signs are much harder to detect. Most body parts grow bigger and stronger, and function more efficiently during childhood. They reach their peak at the time of maturity, or early adulthood. After that, they begin to decline. Bones, for example, gradually become lighter and more brittle. In the aged, the joints between the bones also become rigid and more inflexible. This can make moving very painful. All the major organs of the body show signs of aging. The brain , for example, works less effeciently, and even gets smaller in size. Thinking processes of all sorts are slowed down. Old people often have trouble in remembering recent events. One of the most serous changes of old age occurs in the arteries, the blood vessels that lead from the heart. They become thickened and constricted, allowing less blood to flow the rest of body. This condition accounts, directly or indirectly,for many of the diseasesof the aged. It may, for example, result in heart attack. Aging is not a uniform process. Different parts of the body wearout at diffeent rates. There are great differences among people in their rate of aging. Even the cells of the body differ in the way they age. The majority of cells are capable of reproducing themselves may times during the course of a lifetime. Nerve cells and muscle fibers can never be replace once they wear out. Gerontologists- scientists who study the process of aging- believe this wearing out of the body is controlled by a bult- in biological time clock. They are trying to discover how this clock works so that they can slow down the process.This could give man a longer life and a great number of productive years. 1.What is the main idea of the first paragraph? A. Signs of aging are easier to detect in animals than in plants. B. Aging occurs in every living thing after it has reached maturity. C. not all signs of aging are visible D. the ouward signs of aging may be seen in old people. 2. What does the word “it” in line 2 refer to? A. aging B. a living thing C. an illness D. an accident 3. All the followings may be the outward signs of aging EXCEPT……… A. the graying of the hair B. the wrinkling of the skin C. the decline in hearing and eyesight. D. the loss of appetite 4. When does the human body begin to losevigor and the ability to function effeciency? A. Soon after reaching adulthood B. During childhood C. Early adulthood D. Past middle age 5. What happens to memorization when the brain begins to age? A. It works less B. It becomes forgetful C. It declines D. It slows down 6. What does “ Aging is not a uniform pracess” mean? A. Not all living thins age B. Not all people age have the same age C. Not all people have signs of aging D. Aging doesn’t occur in all people. 7. The word “brittle” as used in the second paragraph means ? A. soft and easily bent B. hard and enduable C. hard but easily broken D. rigid nd inflexible 8. According to the passage, what condition is responsible for many of the diseases of the old? A. the arteries become thickened and constricted B. the blood vessels lead from the heart. C. the brain gets smaller in size D. bones become lighter and brittle 9. What is the main idea of the least paragraph? A. Gerontologists have controlled the process of aging. B. Gerontologists are working hard to help people live longer and more healthily. C. Gerontologists are trying to give people an enternal life D. Gerontologists are now able to slow down the process of aging. 10. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true? A. All lving things grow old. B. Aging is unavoidable in any livings things. C. Plants show less signs of aging than any other living things. D. Most body parts wear out during the courses of a lifetime. Exercise 9: Read the following passage and choose the best answer A, B, C or D for each of the questions. “ We would like to interview you…” Joyful words for the job- seeker, but my letter carried a warning: “ you will be required to take a psychomestric test.” More than seven percent of companies now use these “ objectove” tests for potential employees. They are meant to give a true picture of candidates that removes the unfairness that may result from the personal opinions of interviewers. On the day of my interview for the job of assistant to a company Public Relations consultant, my nerves were made worse by finding that the office was close to a hospital with particularly unhappy associations. Luckily, I had deliberately got there early so that I was able to calm myself down before a secrectary rushed me upstairs for my test. Keeping to a strict time limit, I had to ACCESS groups of adjectives, marking which most and which least matched my ideas of myself at work. Choosing one quality out of four when all seemed appropriate was difficult, more difficult than the interview that followdthought I felt I hadn’t impresed in that either. Confirmation of this arrived a week later. My rejection letter was accompanied by a copy of the Private and Confidential Personal Profile Anaylist- two and a half sides of paper, based on that 10- minute test. The Profile’s rude inaccuracy and ITS JUDGEMENTAL tone were harder to eccept than the fact that I had been turned down for a job. Apparently, I have “no eye for detail”; I am also “ a foceful individual… who leads rather than directs” and I am “ motivated by finacial reward to pay for good living.” The words “impatient”, “ restless” and “ strongwilled” also came up. “ A portrait of an ambitious, power- mad person,” said a psychologist friend of 15 years old to whom I showed the Profile. She said it didn’t apply to me at all. I know myself to be careful, industrious checker. I am shy but cheerful and a bit over- anxious to be thought rceative. I am not a power- crazed person. What would I do, I worried, I had to take another test for another job, and this unattractive personality emerged again? I sent the company a polite disagreement with the Pofile, purely for therecord. Meanwhile, I made a few enquires. Had my emotional state of mind mae the results untypical of me? I had been disturbed to find the officeso close to a hospital that held unhappy memories for me. ‘ State of mind will have an impact,” says Shane Pressey, an occupational psychologists,” but on thr whole its effect will be relatively minor. It appears that the test was an inadequate tool for the amount of information they were trying to get out of it, and it is not suprising that there was inaccuracies. Too late for thatparticular job. I arranged to sit another psychometric test. This one took much longer and was more thorough: the profile was also more detailed and accurate- it showed my eye for detail and the fact that I have a problem meeting deadlines. In my experience is anything to go by, the ob candidate should be suspicious of 10-minute tests that result in generalised- and possibly wildly inaccurate- judgements. I accept that it would be costly to arrange for face- to- facediscussion of test results with all job candidates, but a telephone call would bepreferable to simply receiving a written “profile” through the post and having no apportunity to discuss its contents. 1.Before the writer took the test….. A.felt that she was unlikelyto do it very wel. B. made sure that she was mentally prepared for it. C. believed that such tests were fair to candiates. D. did some research into tests of that kind. 2. What did the writer think when she took the test? A. She couln’t understand some of the questions. B. She found that there was not enough time to do it C. She felt that she had not done it very well D. She decided that it would not prove anything. 3. What does he writer mean by “judgemental” in the fifth paragraph? A. critical B. impatient C. impersonal D. thoughtful 4. When the writer received the Personal Profile Anaylysis, she……… A. was offended by the comments made about her answers. B. was glad that she had not been offered the job. C. regretted some of the answers she had given in the test. D. realisd that her personality wold not have suitd the job. 5. Why did the Profile worry her? A. It made her feel that she had been to self- confident before. B. It indicated that she might have trouble getting a job in the future. C. It did not show that she was capable of being a creative person D. it told her thins about heself that she hadn’t noticed before. 6. What did she find out after taking the test for a job? A. the way she ws feelig had badly effected her performance in it B. Spychometric tests seldom provide reliable information about people. C. Many job candidates are unwilling to take psychometric tests. D. Employers should sop asking cadidates to take psychometric tests. 7. What does the writer recommend? A. Candidates should be able to talk about their test results with employers. B. Employers should pay no attention to the result of psychometric tests C. Candidates shold notbe concerned about taking psychometric tests D. Employers should stop asking cadidates to take psychometric tests 8. Wh does the writer describe her experience? A. It is tyoical of experiences that a great many other people have. B. it shows that no method of selecting job candidates can ever be fair. C. It is an example of how difficult it can be for someone to get a job. D. It illustrates faults in a new method of assessing job candidates. 9. The word “access” in the third paragraph stands for: A. study B. reach C. use D. memoriese 10. the writer’s attitude towards the psychometric test is……… A. positive B. negative C. sastifying D. admiring Exercise10: Read the following two passages and choose the best option ( A, B, C or D) to answer each of the questions. A. There was one thing that I fond strange on my first day as housekeeper at Monk’s House. The floors in the house were very thin. The bathroom was dirrectly above the kitchen, and when Mrs. Woolf was having her bath before breakfast, I could hear her talkng to herself. On and on she went, talk tlk talk, asking questions and iving herself the answers. I thought there must be two or three people up there with her. When Mr. Woolf saw that I looked supprised he told me that MRS. Woolf always said the sentences out lound that she had written during the night. She needed to know if they sounded right and the bath was a god place for trying them out. I was not allowd to make coffee at Monk’s Houe- Mr and Mrs. Woolf were very particular about coffee and always made it themselvesso Mr Woolf came into the kitchen at eight o’clock every morning to make it. When we carriedthe breakfast tray to Mrs. Woolf’s room I noticed that she had always been working during the night. There were pencils and paper beside her bed so that when she woke up she could work, and somes it seems as though she had had very little sleep. Mrs. Woolf’s bedroom was outside the house in the garden. I usd to thnk how inconvenient it must be to have go out in the rain to go to bed. Her bedroom had been added on to the back of the house; the door faced the grden and awindoe at the side openned ot on to the field. Because the writing room was small, he had had a large one built for her at the end of the garden against the church wall. I can always remember her coming to the ouse each day from the writing room., when I rang the bell for lunchat 1 o’clock she usd walk down through the garden smoking one of he rfavorite ciggarettes in a long holder. She was tall and thin and very graceful. She had large, deep- set eyes and a wide curving mouth- I think perhapsit was this that made her face seem particularly beautiful. She ware long skirt- usually blue or brown- in the fashion of the day, and silk jacket of the same color. Her cigarettes were made from a special tobacco called My Mixture. Mr. Woolf brought for her in Londonand, in the evenings, they used to sit by the fire and make cigarrretes themselves. Mrs. Woolf wore clothes that suited her well. I pressed them for her and did any sewing that was necessary- she was not ablt to sew, although sometimes she liked to try. There was one thing in the kitchen that Mrs. Woolf was very good at doing; she could make beautiful bred. 1.What was particularly unusual about Monk’s House? A. The bathroom was next to the kitchen. B. Mrs. Woolf’sbedroom door opened on to the garden. C. The kitchen window looked out over fields. D. The breakfast room was upstairs. 2. What did the writer observe about Mrs. Woolf’s writing habbits? A. She did the great deal of writing at night. B. She worked in the garden whenever she could. C. She preferred to write in the house. D. She sometimes wrote in thebath. 3. Mrs. Woolf wore clothes were……… A. in matching colors. B. designed for her individually. C. suitable for country life. D. rather dull and unattractive. 4. Mr. Woolf’s attitude toward his wifeseeed to be that…… A. He found her strange ways difficult to except. B. Hde led a very separate life C. He did what he could for her. D. He watched over her all time. 5. As far as the housework was concerned, Mrs. Woolf….. A. was too busy to do any. B. disliked dong any C. was very bad at it D. liked one or two particular tasks. B. A Japanese construction copany plans to create a huge independent city- state, akin to the legendary Atlantic, in the middle of the Pacific Ocean. The city, dubbed “ Marinnation”, would have about one million inhabitants, two airports, and possibly even a space sport. Mainnation, if built, would be separate country but could serve as home for international organization as the nited Nations and the World Bank.Aside from the many political social problems that would have to be solved, the engineering task envisaged is monumental. The initial stage requires the building of a circular da 18 miles in diameterattached to the bed relativelyshallow place in international waters, Then, several hundred powerful pumps, operating for more than a year, would suck out the sea water from within the dam. When empty and dry, the area would be about 300 feet below sealevel. According to designers, the hardest task from engineering point of view would be to ensure that the dam is leak proof and earthquake proof. If all goes well, it is hoped that Marinnation could be ready for habitation at the end o the second decade of the twenty- first century. Whenever anyone would want to live in such an isolate and artifical community, however, it will remain an open question until that time. 6.To what does the underlined phrase “the city” refer? A. Japenese construction company .B. Atlantic C. The United Nations D. A future city. 7. What kind of city will Marinnation be? A. underground B. underwater C. marine D. legendary 8. The tone of thepassage is… A. sarcastic B. humous C. judgemental D. informative 9. The problem of Marinnation focused on her mainly……. A. human B. engineering C. political D. social 10. By refering to Atlntic in the passage, the author is saying that A. Marinnation wll never be built city in the ocean C. even if, Marinnation will fail dream B. Marinnation is a D. Marinnatin is only a Answerkey Exercise 1: 1.b 6. d 2. c 7. a 3. b 8. a 4. a 9. c 5. d 10. c 2. d 7. c 3. c 8. b 4. c 9. a 5. d 10. d 2. C 7. A 3. D 8. A 4. A 9. C 5. B 10. D 2. B 7. D 3. C 8. C 4. A 9.C 5. D 10. A 2.C 7. D 3. D 8. C 4. D 9. C 5. B 10. A 2. D 7. C 3. C 8. A 4. B 9. C 5. B 10. A Exercise 2: 1.a 6. a Exercise 3: 1.B 6. C Exercise 4: 1.B 6.C Exercise 5: 1.B 6. B Exercise 6: 1.A 6. A Exercise 7: 1.D 6. A 2. B 7. C 3. A 8. D 4. C 9. A 5. C 10. D 2.B 7. C 3. C 8. A 4. A 9. B 5. C 10. C 2. C 7. A 3. A 8. D 4. A 9. C 5. B 10. B 2. A 7. B 3. A 8. D 4. C 9. B 5. D 10. D Exercise 8: 1.B 6. B Exercise 9: 1.B 6. D Exercise 10: 1.B 6. D [...]... unwilling to take psychometric tests D Employers should sop asking cadidates to take psychometric tests 7 What does the writer recommend? A Candidates should be able to talk about their test results with employers B Employers should pay no attention to the result of psychometric tests C Candidates shold notbe concerned about taking psychometric tests D Employers should stop asking cadidates to take psychometric... is that to succeed in business you have to be different Business, as in life, I need to enjoy myself, to have a feeling of family and to feel excited by the unexpected I have always wanted the people who work for “ The Body Shop” to feel the same way Now this book sends these ideas of mine out into the world, make them public I’d like to think there are no limits to our ‘ family’, no limits to what... limits to what can be done I find that an exciting thought I hope you do, too 6 What is the writer’s main purpose in writing this text? A To tell the reader her life B To introduce her ideas to the reader C To explain how international companies operate D To tell the reader how she brought up her family 7 What would someone learn from this text? A How to make a lot of money B how to write a book about... faster Any strong medicine used to make you feel bettercould be dangerous if you are already taking drugs for some other illness Thus, check with your chemistor doctor to see whether they are all right for you And remember they might make yo sleepy Please don’t try to drive if they do! Lastly, whatever you may be told about magic foods or drinks, the best answer is to keep yourself strong and healthy... costly to arrange for face- to- facediscussion of test results with all job candidates, but a telephone call would bepreferable to simply receiving a written “profile” through the post and having no apportunity to discuss its contents 1.Before the writer took the test… A.felt that she was unlikelyto do it very wel B made sure that she was mentally prepared for it C believed that such tests were fair to. .. ways is expensive right now We need to find out how to make these methods cost les before we can have big sun farms on our deserts Scientists are trying to make a solar energy collector that they hope will be cheap enough for anybody to put on a house- either on the roof or in the wall The inventors are making these solar collectors in kits for people who want to do- it themselves 6 What is the subject... in the garden I usd to thnk how inconvenient it must be to have go out in the rain to go to bed Her bedroom had been added on to the back of the house; the door faced the grden and awindoe at the side openned ot on to the field Because the writing room was small, he had had a large one built for her at the end of the garden against the church wall I can always remember her coming to the ouse each day... closest in meaning to …… A dust B soil C mud D land 8 One reason why many of our rivers are no longer suitable living places for fish is that A too manyfish have been caught B a conservation program has been set up C floods have caused much damage D factories have dumped waste into the rivers 9 Some species of birds and mammmals seemed……… A to become ixtinct B to die C to be killed D to be slaughtered... and constitued an allout effort on the part of the participants to please the gods Anyone who disobeyed the rules were dismissed and seriously punished These athletes brought shame not only to themselves but also to the city they represented 6 Why were the Olympic Games held? A .To stop wars B To crown the best athletes C To honour Zeus D To sing song about the athletes 7 Approximately how many years... the writer The following chart outlines the key information that students should remember about tone, purpose, or course questions: HOW IDENTIRY QUESTION WHERE FIND ANSWER TO THE TO THE TONE, PURPOSE, OR COURSE Tone: What is the tone of the passage? Purpose: What is the author’s purpose in this passage? Tone: There will be clues throughout the passage that the author is showing some emotion rather .. .TEACHING SKILLS TO DO READING COMPREHENSION TESTS: Each reading passage is often followed by 10 questions of reading comprehension and vocabulary Topics of the reading passage... with your chemistor doctor to see whether they are all right for you And remember they might make yo sleepy Please don’t try to drive if they do! Lastly, whatever you may be told about magic... fixed C stopped D encouraged What is an “ Olympiad”? A The time it took to finish a war B The time took to finish the games C The time between games D The time it took the athletes to train 10