ĐỀ THI THỬ KÌ THI THPT QG NĂM 2015 MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH - ĐỀ 1 Thời gian: 90 phút Mark the letter a, b, c, or d on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 01. The criminal was sentenced to death because of ____ of his crime. A. the severity B. the complexity C. a punishment D. the importance 02. The discovery was a major ____ for research workers A. breakthrough B. breakdown C. break-in D. breakout 03. “Would you like me to get a taxi?” - “____.” A. That would be delightful. Thanks B. Well, let’s see. C. Yes, please, if it’s no bother D. Yes, I see. 04. You have a good feeling about yourself and____ when you volunteer. A. others B. other C. the other D. the others 05. If it ____ their encouragement, he could have given it up. A. had been for B. hadn’t been C. hadn’t been for D. wouldn’t have been for 06. By the end of this month I____ for this company for two years. A. have been working B. will have been working C. will be working D. will work 07. Flooding in April is an unusual ____ in this area. A. occur B. occurrence C. occurring D. occurred 08. Lorie is very thin, ____ her young sister, who is quite heavy. A. dissimilar to B. unlikely C. unlike D. dislike 09. It is a fact that____ form of energy. A. electricity being the most useful B. electricity the most useful C. the most useful in electricity D. electricity is the most useful 10. Please ____ and see us some time. You‘re always welcome. A. come to B. come about C. come around D. come away. 11. Only in the Civil War ____ killed or wounded. A. soldiers in America B. so many American soldiers were C. many in America D. were so many American soldiers 12. Prices of flats ____ from a few thousand to millions of dollars. A. vary B. change C. differ D. fluctuate 13. John____ knowledge from many of his life experiences in his work. A. approved B. applied C. appreciated D. accomplished 14. As it was getting late, the boys decided to____ the campfire and crept into their sleeping bags. A. put up B. put off C. put out D. put on 15. The general public____ a large number of computers now, because prices are beginning to decrease. A. must buy B. must be buying C. must have bought D. must bought 16. I have to assure myself that I____ the best possible decision. A. have leapt B. have made C. have done D. have reached 17. “Sorry, I’m late, Mike.” - “____.” A. Well, it’s worth a try B. Not on my account C. No, I wouldn’t mind at all D. That’s all right 18. Tony often watches TV after his parents____ to bed. A. had gone B. have gone C. go D. went 19. Mike: “Tell me what your dog’s like?” - Alice: “____.” A. Very quickly B. Biscuit and bones C. Very well, thank you D. Big, black and hairy Mark the letter a, b, c, or d on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined sound that is pronounced differently from the rest or the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress: 20. A. reindeer B. engineer C. pioneer D. referee 21. A. dangerous B. marvelous C. conspicuous D. numerous 22. A. establish B. illustrate C. intimidate D. inheritance 23. A. expansion B. conversion C. precision D. explosion 24. A. eradicate B. character C. malaria D. spectacular Read the following passage and mark the letter a, b, c, or d on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. REALITY TELEVISION Reality television is genre of television programming which, it is claimed, presents unscripted dramatic or humorous situation, documents actual events, and features ordinary rather than professional actors. It could be described as a form of artificial or “heightened” documentary. Although the genre has existed in some form or another since the early years of television, the current explosion of popularity dates from around 2000. Reality television covers a wide range of television programming formats, from game or quiz shows which resemble the frantic, often demeaning program produced in Japan in the 1980s and 1990s (a modern example is Gaki no tsukai), to surveillance - or voyeurism - focused productions such as Big Brother. Critics say that the term “reality television” is somewhat of a misnomer and that such shows frequently portray a modifies and highly influenced form of reality, with participants put in exotic location or abnormal situations, sometimes coached to act in certain ways by off-screen handlers, and with events on screen manipulated through editing and other post- production techniques. Part of reality television’s appeal is due to its ability to place ordinary people in extraordinary situations. For example, on the ABC show, The Bachelor, an eligible male dates a dozen women simultaneously, traveling on extraordinary dates to scenic locales. Reality television also has the potential to turn its participants into national celebrities, outwardly in talent and performance programs such as Pop Idol, though frequently Survivor and Big Brother participants also reach some degree of celebrity. Some commentators have said that the name “reality television” is an inaccurate description for several styles of program included in the genre. In competition- based programs such as Big Brother and Survivor, and other special-living- environment shows like The Real World, the producers design the format of the show and control the day-to-day activities and the environment, creating a completely fabricated world in which the competition plays out. Producers specifically select the participants, and use carefully designed scenarios, challenges, events, and settings to encourage particular behaviors and conflicts. Mark Burnett, creator of Survivor and other reality shows, has agreed with this assessment, and avoids the word “reality” to describe his shows; he has said, “I tell good stories. It really is not reality TV. It really is unscripted drama.” 25. In the first line, the writer says “it is claimed” because ____. A. they are agree with the statement B. everyone agrees with the statement C. no one agrees with the statement D. they want to distance themselves from the statement 26. Reality television has ____. A. always been this popular B. been popular since before 2000 C. only been popular since 2000 D. been popular since approximately 2000 27. Japan ____. A. is the only one place to produce demeaning TV shows B. has produced demeaning TV shows copied elsewhere C. produced Big Brother D. invented surveillance focused productions 28. People have criticized reality television because ____. A. it is demeaning B. it uses exotic locations C. the name is inaccurate D. it shows reality 29. Reality TV appeals to some because ____. A. it shows eligible males dating women B. it uses exotic locations C. it shows average people in exceptional circumstances D. it can turn ordinary people into celebrities 30. Pop Idol ____ . A. turns all its participants into celebrities B. is more likely to turn its participants into celebrities than Big Brother C. is less likely to turn its participants into celebrities than Big Brother D. is a dating show 31. The term “reality television” is inaccurate____. A. for all programs B. just for Big Brother and Survivor C. for talent and performance programs D. for talent and performances programs 32. Producers choose the participants ____. A. on the ground of talent B. only for special-living- environment shows C. to create conflict among other things D. to make a fabricated world 33. Paul Burnett ____. A. was a-participant on Survivor B. is a critic of reality TV C. thinks the term “reality television” is inaccurate D. writes the script for Survivor 34. Shows like Survivor ____. A. are definitely reality TV B. are scripted C. have good narratives D. are theatre Read the following passage and mark the letter a, b, c, or d on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word(s) for each of the blanks. All life is sound. We are constantly surrounded by sounds and noises (46)_produced_ by nature and everything in it. For thousands of years man has been speaking and singing, and (47)_thanks to_ his wonderfully constructed ear, perceiving sounds and noises, although they are but a small part of the inconceivable wealth of sounds filling the universe. Children everywhere and without (48)_exception_ are born with musical abilities with voices, and with hearing. The difference lies (49)_merely_ in what they do with these gifts. That (50)_varies_ according to temperament upbringing nationality, and time. Nature itself is full of sound, full of music. Musical sounds existed millions of years before there was a human ear to hear (51)_them_ the soft bubbling of the water, the roll of thunder, the whistling and rustling of leaves in the wind and (52)_who_ knows how many other audible manifestations of nature. Man was born (53)_into_ a world of sound. Thunder filled him with fear and became a symbol of supernatural (54) powers__ . In the roar of the wind he heard the voices of demons. Dwellers at the seashore (55)_judges_ the temper of the gods by the sound of the waves. Religious rites and music were inseparable at the dawn of humanity. 35. A. found B. heard C. produced D. existing 36. A. thanks to B. based on C. in spite of D. without 37. A. exception B. doubt C. consideration D. preparation 38. A. absolutely B. merely C. especially D. suddenly 39. A. depends B. forms C. varies D. differentiates 40. A. them B. it C. all D. from 41. A. he B. someone C. who D. everyone 42. A. with B. from C. in D. into 43. A. disasters B. powers C. symbols D. existence 44. A. terrified B. touched C. judged D. heard Mark the letter a, b, c, or d on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction. 45. It announced today that an enquiry would be held into the collapse of a high-rise apartment block in Kuala Lumpur last week. A B C D 46. Neither of the men arresting as terrorists would reveal information about his group. A B C D 47. I strongly object the idea of students in the final year working part-time jobs. A B C D 48. If they took their language lesson seriously, they would be able to communicate with the locals now. A B C D 49. Everyone ought to know the basic steps that follow in case of an emergency. A B C D Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is closest meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. 50. The famous racehorse Secretariat had to be destroyed because of a painful, incurable hoof disease. A. disabling B. vexatious C. dangerous D. irreparable 51. In most countries, compulsory military service does not apply to women. A. superior B. Mandatory C. Benificial D. Constructive 52. Scientists warn of the impending extinction of many species of plants and animals. A. irrefuttable B. Imminent C. Formidable D. Absolute 53. The aircraft carrier is indispensable in naval operation against sea or shore based enemies. A. unique B. Novel C. Exotic D. Vital 54. The use of lasers in surgery has become relatively commonplace in recent years. A. absolutely B. Relavently C. Almost D. comparatively Read the following passage and mark the letter a, b, c, or d on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. TALKING TO ELTON JOHN Q - Do you miss doing the ordinary things in life? A- I like plodding round the kitchen doing the things everybody else does. I love going to the supermarket to do the shopping. I come back with far more stuff than I need. When I am on holiday in St. Tropez, I love to get up at six in the morning to get the fresh bread. So people often see me wheeling my trolley round the supermarkets in town. Q - Do you mind being recognized? A - I’ve tried going out in disguise, but in the end most people recognize me, Ninety- nine percent are very pleasant, very polite. But it’s frustrating if you get out of bed on the wrong side- and you do some days- and someone asks you for an autograph and they haven’t got a pen or a piece of paper. But I enjoy my popularity; I don’t see the point in being a recluse. Q - You once said that you’re a bit of a loner. A- Yeah, I always have been. By that I don’t mean that I’m alone. It’s just that I like to be my own boss all the time. Don’t confuse that with being lonely because I’m not. I have lots of great friends around me. Being successful has given me the confidence to do things I wouldn’t have had the courage to do otherwise. But I still retain that shyness when I first meet people. I’m never going to get rid of that. Q - You like your food, don’t you? A- I’m one of those people who only has to look at a doughnut and I immediately put on 2 pounds without even eating it. I’ve always had a problem with my weight .it doesn’t bother me too much, although I get depressed when I’m very overweight. I dieted once and I became so obsessed that I neatly made myself ill. But I’m happy with the way I am at the moment. If you exercise at least three or four times a week and play tennis, then it’s no problem, but you have to keep at it. ( …) Q - Do you think you will still be touring and making records in another ten year’s time? A - I can’t keep touring and making records for the rest of my life- I’ve got to try something different now and then. One thing I am interested in doing is writing a musical. Q - So do you think we see you on stage in your town musical one day? A - I doubt it. I’m not interested in going into a theatre and performing every night. You may find that strange but if you’re on tour, you’re changing cities. I played at the Hammersmith Odeon once for 14 nights and by the end of it I was going crazy. It was like going to the office. People who actually appear in plays and musical for two or three years have my greatest sympathy and admiration. I never consider what I do as work. 55. When Elton goes out, he ____. A. is recognized by 99% of the population B. wears a disguise C. gets annoyed if he is recognized D. accepts he will probably be recognized 56. The phrase ‘ a recluse’ is closest in meaning to ____. A. an ordinary person B. a celebrity C. a person who avoids other people D. a person who gets frustrated with his popularity 57. How has frame changed Elton John? A. He has become very bossy B. He doesn’t like to be on his own C. He feels more confident D. He has become shy 58. The phrase ‘a loner’ is closest in meaning to ____. A. a person who likes being alone B. a bossy person C. a person who is unhappy without other people around D. an only child in the family 59. What does Elton John say about his weight? A. He is obsessed with his weight B. He gets depressed when he diets C. He has learnt to control his weight D. He wishes he were thin 60. The word it in the last paragraph refers to ____. A. his playing at the theatre for 14 nights B. his going crazy after the performance C. his going to the office D. the Hammersmith Odeon 61. What does the last paragraph tell us about his attitude to work? A. He loves doing the same thing day after day B. He hates any sort of job which means following a routine and doing the same thing day after day. C. He loves playing at the theatre D. He admires people who work hard. 62. Which of the following is not true about Elton John? A. He loves doing the shopping in supermarkets B. He prefers going out in disguise to avoid people C. He has a lot of friends D. Although he’s always had a problem with his weight, he doesn’t care much about it. 63. All of the following suggest that Elton John is basically happy with himself and his lifestyle EXCEPT ____. A. He enjoys his popularity B. He is happy with the way he is at the moment C. He never considers what he does as work D. He’s always been a loner. 64. What is his future ambition? A. to appear in a play or musical B. to break with his present routine C. to do a word tour D. to play at the Hammersmith Odeon WRITING Part 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. 65. Peter was given the first prize. He felt so happy.  Having _______________________________________________________________________________ 66. He will not come here if his mother doesn’t allow him.  Unless _______________________________________________________________________________ 67. Because he was so sick, he didn’t go to work.  If ___________________________________________________________________________________ 68. “Would you like to have a drink with me?”  He invited me___________________________________________________________ 69. He tried to escape but the police stopped him.  The police prevented ___________________________________________________ Part 2: In about 120 words, write a paragraph about your hobby. The end ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 1 Question Đáp án Question Đáp án Question Đáp án Question Đáp án 1 A 17 D 33 C 49 B 2 A 18 B 34 C 50 D 3 C 19 D 35 C 51 B 4 A 20 A 36 A 52 B 5 C 21 C 37 A 53 D 6 B 22 B 38 B 54 D 7 B 23 A 39 C 55 D 8 C 24 C 40 A 56 C 9 D 25 D 41 C 57 C 10 C 26 D 42 D 58 A 11 D 27 B 43 B 59 C 12 A 28 C 44 C 60 A 13 B 29 C 45 A 61 B 14 C 30 B 46 A 62 B 15 C 31 D 47 A 63 D 16 B 32 C 48 A 64 B WRITING: Part I. Finish the second sentence so that it means the same as the first one. 65. Having been given the first prize, he felt so happy. 66. Unless his mother allows him, he won’t come here. 67. If he hadn’t been so sick, he would have gone out. 68. He invited me to have a drink with him. 69. The police prevented him from escaping. ĐỀ THI THỬ KÌ THI THPT QG NĂM 2015 MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH - ĐỀ 2 Thời gian: 90 phút Read the following passage and choose the correct word for each of the blanks. Interpreting the feelings of other people is not always easy, as we all know, and we (1) __ _ as much on what they seem to be telling us, as on the actual words they say. Facial (2) _ _ and tone of voice are obvious ways of showing our (3) _ _ to something, and it may well be that we unconsciously express views that we are trying to hide. The art of being ( 4) __ _ lies in picking up these signals, realizing what the other person is trying to say, and acting so that they are not embarrassed in any way. For example, we may understand that they are in fact (5) __ __ to answer our question, and so we stop pressing them. Body movements in general may also indicate feelings, and interviewers often pay particular attention to the way a candidate for a job walks into the room and sits down. However it is not difficult to present the right kind of appearance while what many employers want to know relates to the candidate’s character traits, and (6) __ __ stability. This raises the awkward question of whether job candidates should be asked to complete psychological tests, and the further problem of whether such tests actually produce (7) __ __ results. For many people, being asked to take part in such a test would be an objectionable (8) __ _ into their private lives. After all, a prospective employer would hardly ask a candidate to run a hundred meters, or expect his or her family doctor to provide (9) _ _ medical information. Quite apart from this problem, can such tests predict whether a person is likely to be a (10) __ __ employee or a values colleague? Question 1: A. rely B. estimate C. reckon D. trust Question 2: A. looks B. image C. manner D. expression Question 3: A. feeling B. view C. notion D. reaction Question 4: A. good at B. tactful C. successful D. humble Question 5: A. reluctant B. used C. hesitant D. tending Question 6: A. psychological B. relevant C. physical D. similar Question 7: A. faithful B. regular C. reliable D. predictable Question 8: A. infringement B. invasion C. interference D. intrusion Question 9: A. reticent B. classified C. confidential D. secretive Question 10: A. conscientious B. particular C. laborious D. thorough Choose the answer that best fits the blank in each sentence or substitutes for the underlined words or phrases. Question 11. The concert didn't come _______ our expectations. A. up with B. up against C. up to D. round Question 12. Professor Alan insisted that every student _______ their report by Friday. A. finish B. finishes C. finished D. had finished Question 13. - "Would you like to have noodles, spaghetti, or something different?" - " ___________" . A. I'm afraid not B. Yes, please C. Never mind D. Anything will do Question 14. On September 9, 1950, California was admitted to the Union__________. A. being thirty-first state B. as the thirty-first state C. for the thirty-first state D. the thirty-first state Question 15. James should have stayed out of the sun as his skin is so ____. A. sensible B. insensible C. sensitive D. senseless Question 16. _______ that the company has shown rapid growth in the last two years. A. It is reported B. They are reported C. The report was D. It was reported Question 17. Having been served lunch, _______. A. the problem was discussed by the members of the committee. B. the committee members discussed the problem C. it was discussed by the committee members the problem D. a discussion of the problem was made by the members of the committee. Question 18. “Excuse me, is anybody sitting here?” – “__________________” A. Sorry, the seat is taken. B. Yes, I am so glad C. No, thanks. D. Yes, yes. You can sit here. Question 19. - "Do you mind if I use your phone?" - ".__________________." A. Yes, certainly B. Sorry. I have no idea C. Not at all. Help yourself D. You can say that again Question 20. Doing exercises may _______ you to pass the exam. A. make it easier for B. make easier for C. be easy for D. make easy that Question 21. _________ Nam Cao is a realistic writer, but he still used a lot of romance in his stories. A. On the contrary B. On my part C. On the whole D. On the other hand Question 22. In the early 16 th century, the geography of the globe still _______________ a mystery. A. maintained B. continued C. was D. remained Question 23. Although he hadn't spoken French for many years, he picked it _______ again after a few weeks. A. over B. on C. through D. up Question 24. The police carried out a _______ search for the missing diplomat. A. through B. thorough C. throughout D. thoughtful Question 25. More people speak English than any other language, but non-native speakers now ______ native speakers by three to one. A. outnumber B. overtake C. pass D. dominate Question 26. The government should take _______ to reduce the current high unemployment rate. A. steps B. measures C. changes D. solutions Question 27. The chairman requested that _______. A. the members study the problem carefully B. with more carefulness the problem could be studied C. the problem was more carefully studied D. the members studied more carefully the problem Question 28. - "What do you think of football?" - "___________" A. Of course, football players are excellent B. It's none of my business. C. Well, it's beyond my expectation D. I am crazy about it. Question 29. His change of job has ____________ him with a new challenge in life. A. led B. initiated C. presented D. introduced Choose one word whose main stress pattern is different from the others'. Question 30: A. collective B. climatic C. abundant D. regional Question 31: A. emergency B. concentration C. humanity D. phenomenon Question 32: A. continent B. government C. reference D. museum Mark the letter a, b, c, or d on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined sound that is pronounced differently from the rest Question 33. A. helicopter B. hospital C. hour D. husband Question 34. A. money B. notice C. glance D. thank Read the following passage and choose the correct answer for each of the questions Experiments have shown that in selecting personnel for a job, interviewing is at best a hindrance, and may even cause harm. These studies have disclosed that the judgments of interviewers differ markedly and bear little or no relationship to the adequacy of the job applicants. Of the many reasons why this should be the case, three in particular stand out. The first reason is related to an error of judgment known as the halo effect. If a person has one noticeable good trait, their other characteristics will be judged as better than they really are. Thus, an individual who dresses smartly and shows self- confidence is likely to be judged capable of doing a job well regardless of his or her real ability. Interviewers are also prejudiced by an effect called the primacy effect. This error occurs when interpretation of later information is distorted by earlier connected information. Hence, in an interview situation, the interviewer spends most of the interview trying to confirm the impression given by the candidate in the first few moments. Studies have repeatedly demonstrated that such an impression is unrelated to the aptitude of the applicant. The phenomenon known as the contrast effect also skews the judgment of interviewers. A suitable candidate may be underestimated because he or she contrasts with a previous one who appears exceptionally intelligent. Likewise, an average candidate who is preceded by one who gives a weak showing may be judged as more suitable than he or she really is. Since interviews as a form of personnel selection have been shown to be inadequate, other selection procedures have been devised which more accurately predict candidate suitability. Of the various tests devised, the predictor which appears to do this most successfully is cognitive ability as measured by a variety of verbal and spatial tests. Question 35. The word “they” in line 6 refers to _______. A. applicants B. judgments C. interviewers D. characteristics Question 36. The word “ this” in line 20 refers to _______. A. measure cognitive ability B. devise personnel selection C. predict candidate suitability D. devise accurate tests Question 37. This passage mainly discusses the _______. A. Judgments of interviewers concerning job applicants. B. Inadequacy of interviewing job applicants. C. Effects of interviewing on job applicants. D. Techniques that interviewers use for judging job applicants. Question 38. According to the passage, the hallo effect _______. A. exemplifies how one good characteristic color perceptions B. takes effect only when a candidate is well -dressed C. stands out as the worst judgmental error D. helps the interviewer’s capability to judge real ability Question 39. The word “hindrance” in line 1 is closest in meaning to _______. A. assistance B. encouragement C. procedure D. interference Question 40. According to the passage the first impression _______. A. can easily be altered B. is unrelated to the interviewer’s prejudices C. is the one that stays with the interviewer D. has been repeatedly demonstrated to the applicant Question 41. The word “skews” in line 14 is closest in meaning to _______. A. improves B. opposes C. biases D. distinguishes Question 42. The author mentions all of the following reasons why interviewing is not an accurate way to predict candidate suitability EXCEPT the _______. A. primacy effect B. halo effect C. contrast effect D. cognitive effect Question 43. The word “confirm” in line 11 is closest in meaning to _______. A. verify B. misrepresent C. recollect D. conclude Question 44. The paragraphs following the passage most likely discuss which of the following? A. More information on the kinds of judgmental effects B. Other reasons for misjudgments of applicants C. Other selection procedures included in interviewing D. More information on cognitive ability tests Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction. Question 45. The Green Garden Restaurant uses fresh produce on their dishes, much of which the owners grow in their own garden. A B C D Question 46. There are many different ways of comparing the economy of one nation with those of another. A B C D Question 47. Going from air condition room to a natural environment can cause respiratory illness. A B C D Question 48. A basic knowledge of social studies, such as history and geography, are considered a basic A B C part of the education of every child. D Question 49. So extensive the lakes are that they are viewed as the largest bodies of fresh water in the world. A B C D Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is closest meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 50. Most of the school-leavers are sanguine about the idea of going to work and earning money. A. fearsome B. expected C. excited D. optimistic Question 51. The situation seems to be changing minute by minute. A. from time to time B. time after time C. again and again D. very rapidly Question 52: It was great to see monkeys in their natural habitat. A. sky B. land C. forest D. home Question 53. Setting off on an expedition without thorough preparation and with inadequate equipment is tempting fate. A. Taking a risk B. losing heart C. having panic D. going round in circles Question 54. Peter didn’t mean to be disrespectful to his teacher. He just couldn’t control his temper. A. Showing lack of trust C. showing impolite behavior B. Showing nervousness D. showing lack of attention Read the following passage and choose the correct answer for each of the questions Every drop of water in the ocean, even in the deepest parts, responds to the forces that create the tides. No other force that affects the sea is so strong. Compared with the tides, the waves created by the wind are surface movements felt no more than a hundred fathoms below the surface. The currents also seldom involve more than the upper several hundred fathoms despite their impressive sweep. The tides are a response of the waters of the ocean to the pull of the Moon and the more distant Sun. In theory, there is a gravitational attraction between the water and even the outermost star of the universe. In reality, however, the pull of remote stars is so slight as to be obliterated by the control of the Moon and, to a lesser extent, the Sun. Just as the Moon rises later each day by fifty minutes, on the average, so, in most places, the time of high tide is correspondingly later each day. And as the Moon waxes and wanes in its monthly cycle, so the height of the tide varies. The tidal movements are strongest when the Moon is a sliver in the sky, and when it is full. These are the highest flood tides and the lowest ebb tides of the lunar month and are called the spring tides. At these times, the Sun, Moon, and Earth are nearly in line and the pull of the two heavenly bodies is added together to bring the water high on the beaches, to send its surf upward against the sea cliffs, and to draw a high tide into the harbors. Twice each month, at the quarters of the Moon, when the Sun, Moon, and Earth lie at the apexes of a triangular configuration and the pull of the Sun and Moon are opposed, the moderate tidal movements called neap tides occur. Then the difference between high and low water is less than at any other time during the month. Question 55: Neap tides occur when ____. A. the Moon is full B. waves created by the wind combine with the Moon’s gravitational attraction C. the Sun counteracts the Moon’s gravitational attraction D. the Moon is farthest from the Sun Question 56: The word felt in line 3 is closest in meaning to____. A. detected B. dropped C. explored D. based Question 57: It can be inferred from the passage that the most important factor in determining how much gravitational effect one object in space has on the tides is A. temperature B. density C. size D. distance Question 58: What is the cause of the spring tides? A. The Earth’s movement around the Sun B. The triangular arrangement of the Earth, Sun, and Moon C. Seasonal changes in the weather D. The gravitational pull of the Sun and the Moon when nearly in line with the Earth Question 59: The word correspondingly in line 8 is closest in meaning to____. A. similarly B. interestingly C. unusually D. unpredictably Question 60: What is the main point of the first paragraph? A. Despite the strength of the wind, it only moves surface water B. The tides are the most powerful force to affect the movement of ocean water C. Deep ocean water is seldom affected by forces that move water D. The waves created by ocean currents are very large Question 61: The words In reality in line 6 are closest in meaning to____. A. characteristically B. similarly C. surprisingly D. actually Question 62: Where in the passage does the author mention movements of ocean water other than those caused by tides? A. Lines 1 – 4 B. Lines 7 - 9 C. Lines 11 - 14 D. Lines 9 - 11 Question 63: The word configuration in line 14 is closest in meaning to____. A. surface B. unit C. arrangement D. center Question 64: According to the passage, all of the following statements about tides are true EXCEPT____. A. Neap tides are more moderate than spring tides B. Tides have a greater effect on the sea than waves do C. The strongest tides occur at the quarters of the Moon D. The time of high tide is later each day WRITING Part 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. 65. She was made to type these letters before going home.  The boss made ________________________________________________________________________ 66. The street is bad and narrow. It leads to my school. The street ________________________________________________________ 67. The last time it snowed here was 6 years ago.  It ____________________________________________________________________ 68. "Go on Jack, apply for the job," said Sally.  Sally encouraged ________________________________________________________ 69. “I hear you won the first prize in the singing contest at school. Congratulations!” Michael said to Mary.  Michael ________________________________________________________________ Part 2: In about 120 words, write a paragraph about the person that you admire most. HẾT ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 2 Question Đáp án Question Đáp án Question Đáp án Question Đáp án 1 A 17 B 33 C 49 A 2 D 18 A 34 D 50 D 3 D 19 C 35 D 51 D 4 B 20 A 36 C 52 D 5 A 21 C 37 B 53 A 6 A 22 D 38 A 54 C 7 C 23 D 39 D 55 C 8 D 24 B 40 C 56 A 9 C 25 A 41 C 57 D 10 A 26 B 42 D 58 D 11 C 27 A 43 A 59 A 12 A 28 D 44 D 60 B 13 D 29 C 45 B 61 D 14 B 30 D 46 C 62 A 15 C 31 B 47 A 63 C 16 A 32 D 48 C 64 C 65. The boss made her type these letters before going home. 66. The street which leads to my school is bad and narrow. 67. It hasn’t snowed here for 6 years. - It is 6 years since it last snowed here. - It last snowed here 6 years ago. 68. Sally encouraged Jack to apply for the job. 69. Michael congratulated Mary on winning/ having won the first prize in the singing contest at school. [...]... wouldn’t’ t have felt sick ĐỀ THI THỬ KÌ THI THPT QG NĂM 2 015 MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH - ĐỀ 5 Thời gian: 90 phút Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that has its underlined part pronounced differently from the other three words in each question Question 1 A language B aviation C attraction D applicant Question 2 A nervous B birthday C worry D third Mark the letter A, B,... 2C 3D 4A 5C 6A 7D 8B 9D 10 D 11 A 12 D 13 B 14 A 15 C 16 B 21 D 22 B 23 D 24 C 25 B 26 B 27 A 28 B 29 B 30 C 31 A 32 D 33 B 34 C 35 B 36 B 40 C 41 D 42 A 43 D 44 C 45 C 46 D 47 D 48 A 49 C 50 C 51 A 52 C 53 C 54 D 55 D 17 A 18 A 19 D 20 C 37 D 38 A 39 B 60 C 61 A 62 B 63 B 64 C 56 A 57 B 58 C 59 B ĐỀ THI THỬ KÌ THI THPT QG NĂM 2 015 MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH - ĐỀ 6 Thời gian: 90 phút Mark the letter A, B, C,...ĐỀ THI THỬ KÌ THI THPT QG NĂM 2 015 MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH - ĐỀ 3 Thời gian: 90 phút Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following blanks Question 1 Let’s go for a walk, ... policeman, is my close friend 69 Jean invited me to come to her party the next day Question 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 Đáp án A C B C A D A D B A C C A B D C ĐỀ THI THỬ KÌ THI THPT QG NĂM 2 015 MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH - ĐỀ 4 Thời gian: 90 phút Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each... made to study hard for the exams We have been cooking for the party for four hours He is behaving more violently than ever before The police prevented us from getting nearer ĐỀ THI THỬ KÌ THI THPT QG NĂM 2 015 MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH - ĐỀ 7 Thời gian: 90 phút Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks Looking for an unforgettable... computers -HẾT - ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 3 Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 Đáp án C C D B B B B C C A B D A B B C Question 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 Đáp án B A D B B D A D C A B A B C A B Question 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 Đáp án D A A A B D D D B C A B C B B A WRITING: 65 I’m afraid I won’t be able to come back home this week because I’m too... species were found within an hour's walk, whereas the total number found on the British islands did not exceed 66, and the whole of Europe supported only 321 This early comparison of tropical and temperate butterfly richness has been well confirmed A general theory of diversity would have to predict not only this difference between temperate and tropical zones, but also patterns within each region, and... really got no money _the fact that you've had a part-time job this term? A although B in spite of C because of D in case Question 14 The doctor gave the patient examination to discover the cause of his collapse A a thorough B a whole C an exact D a universal Question 15 Her book is about the _between women and men A unequality B disequality C inequality D non-equality Question 16 This section of... Therefore, when their ancestors migrated to the seabed, they lay on one side than on their bellies- However, this raises the problem that one eye was always looking down into the sand and was effectively useless – In evolution this problem was solved by the lower eye “ moving” around the other side We see this process of moving around enacted in the development of every young bony flatfish It starts life swimming... finish this work A B C D Question 9 Computers have made access to information instantly available just by push a few buttons A B C D Question 10 Among the world’s 44 richest countries, there has been not war since 1945 A B C D Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions Question 11 Question 41.My daughter saw an elephant this morning . ĐỀ THI THỬ KÌ THI THPT QG NĂM 2 015 MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH - ĐỀ 1 Thời gian: 90 phút Mark the letter a, b, c, or d on your answer. have a drink with him. 69. The police prevented him from escaping. ĐỀ THI THỬ KÌ THI THPT QG NĂM 2 015 MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH - ĐỀ 2 Thời gian: 90 phút Read the following passage and choose the correct. winning/ having won the first prize in the singing contest at school. ĐỀ THI THỬ KÌ THI THPT QG NĂM 2 015 MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH - ĐỀ 3 Thời gian: 90 phút Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer