ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐHCĐ MÔN TIẾNG ANH 20142015 CÓ ĐÁP ÁN

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ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐHCĐ MÔN TIẾNG ANH 20142015 CÓ ĐÁP ÁN

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Đây là tập hợp một số đề để luyện thi môn Tiếng Anh, chuẩn bị cho kỳ thi tuyển sinh ĐHCĐ năm 2015. Mỗi đề có các câu khó, dễ khác nhau, giúp cho việc phân loại thí sinh. Các hình thức câu hỏi sát với đề chính thức của Bộ GDĐT các năm qua, nhằm giúp các thí sinh làm quen với dạng đề.

ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐH – CĐ MÔN TIẾNG ANH SỐ 1 Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other three. 1. A. popularize B. apologize C. maximize D. pasteurize 2. A. best-selling B. high-pitched C. multi-purpose D. red-hot 3. A. statistics B. ecotourism C. consciousness D. maintenance 4. A. painstakingly B. fascinatingly C. interestingly D. temporarily 5. A. disposable B. documentary C. original D. nonprofit Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the other three: 6. A. blessed B. minced C. wicked D. wretched 7. A. slaughter B. throughout C. drought D. laughter 8. A. trainer B. fairness C. impairment D. dairy-maid 9. A. subtle B. timber C. plumber D. doubtful 10. A. terrible B. sentimental C. terrific D. memory Choose the best answer: 11. Nobody in this class will be given treatment, if you are good, you have to prove it. A. prejudicial B. preferable C. preferential D. selective 12. You are at to do what you like. A. freedom B. odds C. disposal D. liberty 13. A of cattle walked slowly towards the farmhouse. A. colony B. herd C. hive D. swarm 14. What chemical is this? It is a horrible smell. A. giving out B. giving away C. giving off D. giving up 15. You the umbrella. Don’t you think it silly to carry an umbrella on such a nice day? A. mustn’t have brought B. didn’t have to bring C. needn’t have brought D. didn’t need to bring 16. I think Ms. Copper is fit for her job as a secretary, ? A. isn’t she B. do I C. is she D. don’t I 17. We hardly have any food in the house. – We have to what we have. A. make it do with B. make do with C. make do with it D. make do it 18. The new chief executive moves that a daring innovation A. will be considered B. is considered C. be considered D. was considered 19. My girlfriend arrived after I for her for about half an hour. A. was waiting B. had been waiting C. have been waiting D. have waited 20. The number of students increasing now. A. are B. was C. were D. is 21. “I’d rather to the radio than this soap opera on TV.” “To me, I prefer TV. You’d better a radio and for a walk.” A. to listen – see – to watch – take – go B. listen – to see – to watch – take – go C. listen – see – to watch – take – go D. listen – see – watch – take – go 22. I’m sorry I’m late. I hope I didn’t cause you A. too much problems B. problem C. many more trouble D. too much trouble 23. The wind was blowing so that I could walk. A. hard – hard B. hardly – hard C. hard – hardly D. hardly – hardly 24. most of the soldiers gave up! A. So was the exercise difficult that B. So difficult was the exercise that C. So was the exercise difficult that did D. So difficult was the exercise that did 25. The English were the first Europeans to settle what is now the United States. A. of – at B. in – down C. out of – on D. among – in 26. Although Tom eats quite a lot, he is still very A. skinny B. muscular C. well-built D. round 27. “What do you do for a living?” – “ ” A. I get a high salary, you know. B. I want to be a doctor, I guess. C. I work in a bank. D. It’s hard work, you know. 28. “What does it cost to get to Manchester?” – “ ” A. It’s interesting to travel to Manchester B. It depends on how you go. C. I always go by train. D. I don’t like to go by train. 29. “Thank you for taking the time to come here in person.” – “ ” A. It’s my pleasure. B. I don’t know what time that person comes. C. I’d love to come. What time? D. Do you have time for some gossip? 30. The water well is said A. dug by the local people a long time ago. B. to be dug by the local people a long time ago. C. to dig by the local people a long time ago. D. to have been dug by the local people a long time ago. 31. He told me to rest for a while. => “ for a while,” he said A. To rest B. Rest C. Do you rest D. Resting 32. Near the White House is another famous landmark the Washington Monument. A. is which B. which call C. called D. it is called 33. Thank you for the money. It was of you. A. more generous B. the more generous C. most generous D. the most generous 34. The contract calls for the union to who their bargaining representative will be. A. specific B. specification C. specifying D. specify 35. Your room is mine. A. twice larger than B. as twice large as C. larger twice than D. twice as large as Choose the word or phrase that best fits the blank space in the following passage: Tropical forests have (36) us with very many sorts of plants for food, (37) and industry. They could probably supply man more. They also reduce (38) and droughts, keep water clean, and slow down the Greenhouse Effects, (39) the tropical forests are (40) destroyed to make (41) for things like farms, ranches, mines and hydroelectric (42) About 20 million hectares are lost each year – an area more than twice the size of Austria. The World Wildlife Fund is working to (43) and save the forests that are (44) danger; to plant new trees for fuel wood and to slow down the Greenhouse Effect; and to (45) governments to think about the forests and their importance when giving international aid. 36. A. given B. brought C. supplied D. donated 37. A. medicine B. hospitals C. doctors D. surgeons 38. A. deserts B. floods C. heat D. hazards 39. A. so B. for C. because D. but 40. A. have B. been C. being D. be 41. A. room B. rooms C. place D. places 42. A. sources B. energy C. dams D. cables 43. A. keep B. protect C. maintain D. hold 44. A. at B. within C. on D. in 45. A. make B. let C. encourage D. influence Read the passage and choose the best answer: Situated in the central mountains of Alaska, a peak named Denali rises 20,320 feet above sea level. It is the highest peak in North America and the center of Denali National Park. One of America’s greatest wilderness areas, the park had limited access to visitors, but in spite of this tourism rose from under 6,000 visitors in 1950 to over 546,000 visitors in 1990. The increasing popularity of this park is prompting serious discussions about the future use of Denali as well as how to preserve wilderness areas in general. One important issue of land use arises when parts of National Parks are owned by individuals. In Denali, though most of the land in this vast track of more than a million acres is owned by the National park Service, several thousand acres are still privately owned as mining tracts. These mining tracts in Denali were once abundant sources of gold, but they were sources of heavy metals such as arsenic and lead that polluted rivers and streams. Environmentalists were successful in getting the government to require mining companies to submit statements showing the potential impact of a mining project before they are allowed to begin mining. Because of this requirement, many individuals closed their mines and some sold their land to the National Park Service. Some land owners, however, are wondering if it is better to sell their land to the government or keep it for possible future use. Tourism in this previously remote area is bound to rise, as more roads are built to provide easier access to the park. This increase in the number of visitors creates a demand for hotels and real estate development. The economic implications of this are of interests to the land owner, but are dismaying to those interested in preserving the wilderness. 46. What is the primary focus of this passage? A. controversies over land use in Denali. B. miners selling their property in Denali. C. Alaska building more roads to Denali. D. limiting tourist access to Denali. 47. The word prompting in the first paragraph could best be replaced by which of the following? A. promising B. sanctioning C. initiating D. trapping 48. The word arises in the second paragraph could best be replaced by A. surrenders B. occurs C. volunteers D. prospers 49. The word tract in the second paragraph refers to A. trail B. resort C. frontier D. expanse 50. Which of the following is most similar to the word abundant in the second paragraph? A. plentiful B. sparse C. hopeful D. absolute 51. According to the passage, which of the following are pollutants in the Denali area? A. gold B. pesticides C. human waste D. arsenic 52. Which of the following is closest in the meaning to the phrase potential impact in the third paragraph? A. appropriate cost B. expected value C. proposed size D. possible effects 53. The author infers that some mine owners might hesitate to sell their land to the Park Service for which of the following reasons? A. There may be increasing demand for the one in the mines. B. They might want to build a house on their property. C. They might receive more money selling their lands to developers. D. They might want to move to the towns. 54. What is the author’s purpose in writing this passage? A. to demonstrate the changes in Denali National Park. B. to use Denali as an example of common park issues. C. to introduce the wonders of the wilderness area in Denali. D. to explain the problems occurring in Denali Park. 55. Which of the following would most likely to be the topic of the next paragraph in this passage? A. conflict between land owners and environmentalists. B. the role of the National Park Service in development. C. tourist needs in Denali Park. D. wildlife in the park. Read the passage and choose the best answer: It was once believed that being overweight was healthy, but nowadays few people subscribe to this viewpoint. While many people are fighting the battle to reduce weight, studies are being conducted concerning the appetite and how it is controlled by both emotional and biochemical factors. Some of the conclusions of these studies may give insights into how to deal with weight problems. For example, when several hundred people were asked about their eating habits in times of stress, 44 percent said they reacted to stressful situations by eating. Further investigations with both humans and animals indicated that it is not food which relieves tension but rather the act of chewing. A test in which subjects were blindfolded showed that obese people have a keener sense of taste and crave more flavorful food than nonobese people. When deprived of the variety and intensity of tastes, obese people are not satisfied and consequently eat more to fulfill this need. Blood samples taken from people after they were shown a picture of food revealed that overweight people reacted with an increase in blood insulin, a chemical associated with appetite. This did not happen to average-weight people. In another experiment, results showed that certain people have a specific, biologically induced hunger for carbohydrates. Eating carbohydrates raises the level of serotonin, a neurotransmitter in the brain. Enough serotonin produces a sense of satiation, and hunger for carbohydrates subsidies. Exercise has been recommended as an important part of a weight-loss program. However, it has been found that mild exercise, such as using the stairs instead of the elevator, it better in the long run than taking on a strenuous program, such as jogging, which many people find difficult to continue over long periods of time and which also increase appetite. 56. The word “crave” can best be replaced with A. devour B. absorb C. season D. desire 57. It can be inferred from the passage that A. overweight people are tense B. thin people don’t eat when under stress. C. weight watchers should chew on st inedible tense D. 56 percent of the population isn’t overweight. 58. It can be inferred from the passage that A. thin people don’t enjoy food B. a variety of foods and strong flavors satisfy heavy people. C. overweight people have an abnormal sense of taste. D. deprivation of food makes people fat. 59. According to the passage, insulin A. increases in the bloodstream when people eat large amounts of food. B. can be used to lessen the appetite. C. causes a chemical reaction when food is seen. D. levels don’t change in average-weight people who see food. 60. It can be inferred that for certain people A. eating carbohydrates eliminates hunger. B. carbohydrates biologically induce hunger. C. carbohydrates don’t satisfy a hungry person. D. carbohydrates subside when serotonin is produced. 61. What can be said about serotonin? A. It is a chemical that increases the appetite. B. Only certain people produce it in their brains. C. It tells the brain when a person is full D. It transmits carbohydrates to the brain. 62. In order to lose weight, it would be a good idea for heavy people to A. jog 3 miles daily and chew on carrot sticks. B. walk up stairs and look at pictures of food. C. eat plenty of chewy carbohydrates. D. avoid stressful situations and eat spicy food. 63. Which one of the following exercises might be best for an overweight person to engage in daily? A. an evening walk B. a long swim C. a cross-country skiing D. 10-mile bicycle rides. Find out the mistake: 64. The dwarf lemon tree, grown in many areas of the world, bears fruit when it is fewer than six inches in high. 65. The brain is composed of a mass of softly gray matter in the skull that controls our intelligence. 66. Polluter is a topic of such importance today that even elementary school children are well informed about its dangers. 67. Best represented in a famous oil painting by Da Vinci, The Last Supper it is an important part of the history of Christianity. 68. Together with his friend Little John, Robin Hood are fondly remembered today by millions of people. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase closest in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 69. I used to meet him occasionally on Fifth Avenue. A. in one occasion B. once in a while C. one time D. none is correct 70. Biogas can be utilized for electricity production, cooking, space heating, water heating and process heating. A. increase B. sparing C. generation D. reformation 71. We spent the entire day looking for a new apartment. A. the long day B. all long day C. day after day D. all day long Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) opposite in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 72. During the five-decade history the Asian Games have been advancing in all aspects. A. holding to B. holding back C. holding at D. holding by 73. She decided to remain celibate and devote her life to helping the homeless and orphans. A. divorced B. married C. single D. separated Choose the best answer: 74. If it hadn’t been so late, I would have called you. A. It was not late when I called you. B. It was late, so I did not call you. C. It was late, but I called you D. I was not late but I did not call you. 75. No one but the seven-year-old boy saw the accident. A. Only the seven-year-old boy saw the accident. B. No one at all saw the seven-year-old boy’s accident. C. The seven-year-old boy saw no one in the accident. D No one in the accident saw the seven-year-old boy. 76. Most people get fewer colds in summer than in winter. A. A person is more likely to get cold in winter. B. More people have summer colds than winter colds. C. People get colder in summer than in winter. D. Winter is much colder than summer. 77. Completed in 1756, Nassau Hall, which is now standing on the campus of Princeton University, is the oldest building. A. Completed in 1756, Nassau Hall is the oldest building now has stood on the campus of Princeton University. B. Completed in 1756, Nassau Hall is the oldest building now it stands on the campus of Princeton University. C. Completed in 1756, Nassau Hall is the oldest building now standing on the campus of Princeton University. D. Completed in 1756, Nassau Hall is the oldest building now stood on the campus of Princeton University. 78. The hardworking cabinet maker, Duncan Phyfe, was the one person who was most responsible for making New York City a center of furniture design in the early nineteenth century. A. The one person most responsible for making New York City a center of furniture design in the early nineteenth century he was hardworking cabinetmaker, Duncan Phyfe. B. The one person most responsible for making New York City a center of furniture design in the early nineteenth century was the hardworking cabinetmaker, Duncan Phyfe. C. The one person most responsible for making New York City a center of furniture design in the early nineteenth century by working hard, the cabinetmaker, Duncan Phyfe. D. The one person most responsible for making New York City a center of furniture design in the early nineteenth century through his hard working cabinetmaker, Duncan Phyfe. 79. She had only just put the phone down when the boss rang back. A. Hardly she had put the phone down when her boss rang back. B. Hardly she puts the phone down when her boss rang back. C. Hardly did she put the phone down when her boss rang back. D. Hardly had she put the phone down when her boss rang back. 80. It isn’t necessary for you to finish the report by Sunday. A. You don’t need finish the report by Sunday. B. You mustn’t finish the report by Sunday. C. You might not finish the report by Sunday. D. You don’t need to finish the report by Sunday. ĐÁP ÁN 1. B 2. C 3. A 4. D 5. B 6. B 7. D 8. A 9. B 10. C 11. C 12. D 13. B 14. C 15. C 16. A 17. B 18. C 19. B 20. D 21. C 22. D 23. C 24. B 25. D 26. A 27. C 28. B 29. A 30. D 31. B 32. C 33. C 34. D 35. D 36. C 37. A 38. B 39. D 40. C 41. A 42. C 43. B 44. D 45. C 46. A 47. C 48. B 49. D 50. A 51. D 52. D 53. C 54. B 55. A 56. D 57. C 58. B 59. D 60. A 61. C 62. D 63. A 64. D 65. B 66. A 67. C 68. B 69. B 70. C 71. D 72. B 73. B 74. B 75. A 76. A 77. C 78. B 79. D 80. D ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐH – CĐ MÔN TIẾNG ANH SỐ 2 Find the word that has its underlined part pronounced differently from the other three in each question: 1. A. allow B. follow C. hollow D. fellow 2. A. cable B. station C. transfer D. relate 3. A. laid B. stayed C. paid D. said 4. A. souvenir B. south C. thousand D. around 5. A. addition B. advertise C. adventure D. advantage Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words in each question: 6. A. ignite B. igloo C. ignorant D. ignore 7. A. innovate B. inevitable C. innocent D. allocate 8. A. irritable B. irrelevant C. irreparable D. irrational 9. A. estimate B. activate C. migrate D. television 10. A. spectacular B. variety C. psychological D. contribute Identify the mistake: 11. One of history’s most spectacular executions were that of Damiens, the unsuccessful assassin of Louis XV of France. 12. The average adult get two to five colds each year. 13. Psychological experiment indicate that people remember more math problems that they cannot solve than those they are able to solve. 14. Studying the science of logic is one way to cultivate one’s reason skills. 15. Before becoming successful, Charles Kettering, former vice president of General Motors, was so poor that he has to use the hayloft of a barn as a laboratory. Choose the one that best completes the sentence: 16. Top fashion models often spend hundreds of pounds A. getting straightened their teeth. B. straightening their teeth. C. getting their teeth straightened. D. having got their teeth straightened. 17. Carpenter ants damage homes chew through wood. A. are they B. when they C. they D. by they can 18. Jet streams are layers of air rapidly above the earth’s surface. A. that move B. move C. that they move D. moving that 19. Mach numbers describe the velocity of airplanes over the speed of sound. A. moving B. moved C. have moved D. move 20. Auroras are created when the sun’s particles are caught in A. field the earth’s magnetic B. the earth’s magnetic field C. the field magnetic earth D. the magnetic earth’s field 21. Seldom art critics consider movies to be a form of fine art. A. are B. that C. do D. the 22. Sumerians were the first to invent cuneiform, A. a system of writing B. was a system of writing C. which a system of writing D. for a system of writing 23. After the seventh month of pregnancy, a good chance of survival. A. it has a premature baby B. does a premature baby have C. there is a premature baby D. a premature baby has 24. Migratory patterns in birds terms of seasonal changes. A. can be explained in usually B. can usually be explained in C. in usually can be explained D. can explained usually in 25. Louis Renault greatly improved automobile technology the drive shaft in 1898 A. by inventing B. that he invented C. his inventing D. the invention of Choose the best answer: 26. As the managing director dictating the letter, his secretary what he was saying in shorthand. A. took up B. took down C. took on D. took off 27. Mary lost one running shoe, but won the race despite this A. awkwardness B. disaster C. handicap D. feat 28. “Where’s Polly?” “She ” A. is in her room studying B. in her room is studying C. studies in her room D. has in her room studied 29. Veronica broke the school rules so many times that the headmistress finally had no alternative but to her. A. export B. deport C. eject D. expel 30. Trespassers will be A. perpetrated B. persecuted C. proscribed D. prosecuted 31. He suggested a jumble sale to try and raise money for the scouts. A. me to hold B. me that I held C. holding D. to be held 32. We at about seven o’clock this morning and we eventually arrived at half past four. A. set in B. set to C. set up D. set out 33. Mr. Jackson challenged the government as to who exactly was the country. A. reigning B. ministering C. administrating D. running 34. I tried to explain why I had been delayed but he my excuse as pathetic. A. ignored B. disregarded C. dismissed D. refused 35. While Mr and Mrs Simpson were asleep, the burglar picked the lock of their front door and crept into their living room. A. lazily B. stealthily C. clumsily D. criminally 36. However good Schoenberg have been, I still find his modern music very difficult to appreciate. A. could B. may C. should D. would 37. He is by many people for the money he has helped raise for charity. A. approved B. regarded C. admired D. considered 38. On the way to Cambridge yesterday the road was blocked by a fallen tree, so we had to make a A. deviation B. digression C. detour D. departure 39. The explosion shattered hundreds of of glass in the building. A. windows B. fragments C. sheets D. panes 40. Paloma will have to her antiques, because she needs the money. A. part with B. take out C. move on D. clear up Choose the correct sentence which has the same meaning as the given one: 41. It’s a pity that you didn’t tell us about this A. I wish you told us about this B. I wish you would tell us about this C. I wish you had told us about this D. I wish you have told us about this. 42. He’s getting them to mend the windows. A. He’s having the windows to mend B. He’s having to mend the windows. C. He’s having to be mended the windows D. He’s having the windows mended. 43. It started to rain at 2 o’clock and it is still raining. A. It has been raining at 2 o’clock B. It has been raining since 2 o’clock. C. It has been raining for 2 o’clock. D. It has been raining in 2 o’clock. 44. They made her hand over her passport. A. She was made to hand over her passport B. She was made hand over her passport. C. She was handed over to make her passport. D. She was handed over for her passport to make. 45. I tried to eat the cake, but it was too sweet. A. It was such a sweet cake that I couldn’t eat it. B. It was so sweet cake that I couldn’t eat it. C. The cake was too sweet that I couldn’t eat it D. The cake was very sweet that I couldn’t eat it. 46. My brother and I went to that school. A. I went to that school and my brother, too. B. I went to that school and so my brother did. C. I went to that school and so did my brother. D. I went to that school and so my brother did, too. 47. She said to us, “Don’t be late again.” A. She said to us not to be late again. B. She told us to be not late again. C. She told to us not to be late again. D. She told us not to be late again. 48. I often get up early in the morning. A. I am used to getting up early in the morning. B. I am sued to get up early in the morning. C. I used to get up early in the morning. D. I used to getting up early in the morning. 49. Getting a good job doesn’t interest him. A. He isn’t good at getting an interesting job B. He isn’t interested in getting a good job. C. He is only interested in getting a good job. D. Even a good job isn’t suitable to him. 50. The garden is too small to play football in. A. The garden is so small not to play football in. B. The garden is small enough to play football in. C. The garden isn’t big enough to play football in. D. The garden is such small that they can’t play football in. Read the passage and choose the best answer: The most famous diary in English was written by Samuel Pepys. It gives a detailed and interesting (51) of everyday life in England (52) 1660 and 1669. Pepys writes about important news stories of the time, like disease, an enemy navy (53) up the river Thames, and the Great Fire of London. He also writes about himself, even about his (54) – he often slept during church or (55) at the other people. He describes his home life – a (56) with his wife and how they became friends again, his worry about her illness. As well as books, he liked music, the theatre, card (57) , and parties with good food and (58) of fun. Pepys was a busy man who had many important (59) – he was a Member of Parliament and President of the Royal Society. He is (60) for his work for the British Navy. 51. A. description B. letter C. notice D. story 52. A. between B. from C. through D. to 53. A. driving B. flying C. running D. sailing 54. A. accidents B. plans C. tastes D. faults 55. A. looked B. prayed C. talked D. thought 56. A. conversation B. discussion C. quarrel D. talk 57. A. battles B. games C. matches D. plays 58. A. amount B. plenty C. much D. some 59. A. acts B. hobbies C. jobs D. studies 60. A. reviewed B. remembered C. reminded D. reported Read the passage and choose the best answer: Urban life has always involved a balancing of opportunities and rewards against dangers and stress; its motivating force is, in the broadest sense, money. Opportunities to make money mean competition and competition is stressful; it is often most intense in the largest cities, where opportunities are greatest. The presence of huge numbers of people inevitable involves more conflicts, more traveling, the overloading of public services and exposure to those deviants and criminals who are drawn to the rich pickings of great cities. Crime has always flourished in the relative anonymity of urban life, but today’s ease of movement makes its control more difficult than ever; there is much evidence that its extent has a direct relationship to the size of communities. City dwellers may become trapped in their homes by the fear of crime around them. As a defense against these developments, city dwellers tend to use various strategies to try and reduce the pressures upon themselves; contacts with other people are generally made brief and impersonal; doors are kept locked; telephone numbers may be ex-directory; journeys outside the home are usually hurried, rather than as source of pleasure. There are other strategies, too, which are positively harmful to the individuals, for examples, reducing awareness through drugs or alcohol. Furthermore, all these defensive forms of behavior are harmful to society in general; they cause widespread loneliness and destroy the community’s concern for its members. Lack of informal social contact and indifference to the misfortunes of others, if they are not personally known to oneself, are among the major causes of urban crime. Inner areas of cities tend to be abandoned by the more successful and left to those who have done badly in the competitive struggle or who belong to minority groups; these people are then geographically trapped because so much economic activity has migrated to the suburbs and beyond. Present-day architecture and planning have enormously worsened the human problems of urban life. Old established neighborhoods have been ruthlessly swept away, by both public and private organizations, usually to be replaced by huge, ugly, impersonal structures. People have been forced to leave their familiar homes, usually to be re-housed in tower blocks which are drab, inconvenient, and fail to provide any setting for human interaction or support. This destruction of established social structures is the worst possible approach to the difficulties of living in a town or city. Instead, every effort should be made to conserve the human scale of the environment, and to retain familiar landmarks. 61. According to the author, living in a city causes stress because there are so many people who are A. in need of help B. naturally aggressive C. likely to commit crime D. anxious to succeed 62. The word “its” refers to: A. crime B. urban life C. movement D. control 63. The author thinks that crime is increasing in cities because A. criminals are difficult to trace in large populations. B. people do not communicate with their neighbors. C. people feel anonymous there D. the trappings of success are attractive to criminals. 64. The word “anonymity” as used in paragraph 1 can be replaced by A. calamity B. vagueness C. isolation D. intensity 65. All of the following strategies to reduce pressure are mentioned EXCEPT: A. limit one’s contacts B. make quick journeys outside the house C. use alcohol D. never use telephones 66. According to the article, what is the worst problem facing people living in cities? A. Crime B. Finding somewhere to live C. Social isolation D. Drugs and alcoholism. 67. The majority of people who live in inner cities do so because they A. dislike having to travel far to work. B. don’t like the idea of living in the suburbs. C. have turned against society D. have been forced by circumstances to do so. 68. Architectural changes have affected city life by A. giving the individual a say in planning B. dispersing long-established communities C. forcing people to live on top of each other D. making people move to the suburbs. 69. The word “drab” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to A. inconsiderate B. colorful C. trapped D. monotonous 70. The word “impersonal” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to A. abstract B. unfriendly C. businesslike D. remote Read the passage and choose the best answer: Dinosaurs lived in New Mexico for about 154 million years, between 220 and 66 million years ago. In geologists’ terms, this time span covers the Late Triassic Period and the entire Jurassic and Cretaceous periods. Dinosaur fossil and other remains have been found throughout New Mexico. One of the most important remains in New Mexico are the footprints found at Clayton Lake, in the northeastern corner of the state. After studying the hundreds of footprints at Clayton Lake, scientists identified a period in dinosaur evolution known as the Sauropod hiatus. Sauropod are classified as “lizard-hipped” dinosaurs, and are distinguished from the “bird-hipped” Orthiniscan dinosaurs. They are quadrupedal, herbivorous animals with a relatively simple body – a long neck and tail, a fairly small skull and brain, and erect limbs similar to those of elephants. Numerous Sauropod footprint from the Early Cretaceous period – 100 million years ago and earlier – exist in Texas, Oklahoma, and Arkansas. But, at Clayton Lake, northestern New Mexico, Oklahoma, and Colorado, footprints from the same time period clearly show that no Sauropods were present, and that Orthiniscans predominated. From the fossil record, it seems that the Sauropods disapperared in many parts of North America between 70 million and 100 million years ago. Scientists think the last North American Sauropod was a creature discovered in the San Juan Basin of north-western New Mexico and named Alamosaurus. Alamosaurus closely resembles Sauropods from South America, which were quite numerous even as their North American cousins died out. Alamosaurus must have come to New Mexico from South America near the end of the Cretaceous. 71. What does the passage mainly discuss? A. the Sauropod hiatus, and the evidence supporting it. B. the physical attributes of the Sauropods. C. the fossil records of dinosaurs in North America. D. geologists’ method of searching for fossils at Clayton Lake. 72.” Lizard-hipped” most likely refers to: A. a species B. the dinosaur’s physical makeup C. a derogatory era in which the Sauropod lived D. the geological era in which the Sauropod lived. 73. According to the passage, Clayton Lake is home to: A. thousands of dinosaurs B. fossilized footprints of several dinosaurs. C. only a few fossils D. a scientific hiatus 74. Which of the following is NOT used in the passage to describe a characteristic of Sauropod? A. quadruped B. erect C. herbivorous D. carnivorous 75. When did the Sauropod disappear from North America? A. in the 70 th century B.C B. over the course of about 30 million years C. 200 million years ago. D. before the Orthiniscans. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best way to make the sentence from the cues. 76. How/ ungrateful/ you/ not/ greet/ former/ teacher/ meet/ him. A. How ungrateful of you not to greet your former teacher when you met him. B. How ungrateful you are not to greet your former teacher when you met him. C. How ungrateful of you not to greet your former teacher to met him. D. How ungrateful to you not to greet your former teacher when you met him. 77. If / he/ come/ station/ earlier/ not miss/ train. A. If he had came to the station earlier he would not have missed the train. B. If he had come to the station earlier he would have not missed the train. C. If he has come to the station earlier he would not have missed the train. D. If he had come to the station earlier he would not have missed the train. 78. The/ book/ boring/ I/ it/ reading/ so/ stopped/ that/ was/. A. The book was so boring that I stopped reading it. B. The book was boring so that I stopped reading it. C. The reading book was so boring that I stopped it. D. The boring book stopped reading so that I was it. 79. be sure/ good seat/ your tickets / should/ bought/ advance. A. To be sure of a good seat, your tickets should be bought in advance. B. To be sure of a good seat, your tickets should be bought advance. C. I’m sure about a good seat for your tickets should be bought in advance. D. To be sure of a good seat for your tickets should be bought in advance. 80. fact/ her son/ out/ danger/ bring/ her/ some relief. A. The fact that her son is out of danger brought her some relief. B. The fact that her son was out of danger which brought her some relief. C. The fact that her son is out of danger has brought her some relief. D. The fact that her son was out of danger brought her some relief. [...]... Nếu bạn lắp CPU có tốc độ là 733 MHz và có BUS là 100MHz thì bạn phải thi t lập như sau : => Thi t lập Jumper 1 sao cho có BUS là 100 => Thi t lập SW1 sao cho có số nhân là 7,5 => Khi đó tốc độ CPU sẽ là 100 x 7,5 = 750MHz ( Thực tế nó sẽ chạy ở tốc độ 733MHz ) Nếu bạn thi t lập Jumper 1 có BUS là 66 hoặc 133 thì Máy sẽ không chạy ( Như hỏng Mainboard ) Nếu bạn thi t lập đúng BUS nhưng thi t lập số nhân... hãy dùng một bộ nguồn tốt để thử Để thử CPU bạn có thể cắm thử sang một máy khác, nếu là CPU của máy Pentium2 hoặc Pentium3 thì bạn cần thi t lập cho đúng tốc độ BUS của CPU thì nó mới chạy ( Xem lại phần thi t lập tốc độ cho CPU ) Sau khi bạn đã thử và đã chắc chắn rằng : Nguồn và CPU vẫn tốt nhưng máy vẫn bị các biểu hiện trên thì chứng tỏ => Mainboard của bạn có vấn đề ! 2 Các biểu hiện sau thường... các đèn Led :       + 5V : Báo có điện áp + 5V Đèn này phát sáng khi bật công tắc nguồn, nếu đèn này không sáng thì do chập đường nguồn +5V trên Mainboard 3,3V : Báo có điện áp 3,3V ( Tương tự đường 5V ) - 12V : Báo có điện áp - 12V Đèn này phát sáng khi bật công tắc nguồn, nếu đèn này không sáng thì do chập đường nguồn - 12V trên Mainboard + 12V : Báo có điện áp + 12V ( Tương tự đường - 12V... tốt để thử, Dùng CPU tốt để thử Chưa cắm RAM và bất kỳ một thứ gì khác ( trừ CPU ) vào Mainboard Cắm zắc công tắc nguồn của Case vào Mainboard Cấp điện nguồn và bật công tắc Power, quan sát các biểu hiện sau : => Quạt nguồn và quạt CPU có quay, có tiếng bíp dài ở loa => Điều này là biểu hiện Mainboard vẫn bình thường => Quạt nguồn và quạt CPU không quay hoặc các quạt quay nhưng không có tiếng bíp... 3 đời đầu thì ta phải thi t lập tốc độ cho CPU thông qua các Jumper, nếu ta không thi t lập thì máy có thể không chạy ( như hỏng Mainboard ) hoặc chạy sai tốc độ của CPU Vậy thi t lập tốc độ cho CPU như thế nào ?  Bạn hãy để ý trên Mainboard có một bảng hướng dẫn về thi t lập tốc độ Bus cho CPU như dưới đây : BUS 66 100 133 Jumper 1 A 1-2 2-3 1-2 B 1-2 1-2 2-3 Bảng chỉ dẫn thi t lập tốc độ BUS cho... máy đều nằm trong IC này, để giảm thi u sự rủi do cho khách hàng và nâng cao chất lượng cũng như độ bền, trong các Mainboard mới đây có thêm một ROM BIOS dự trữ, khi ROM BIOS chính bị lỗi thì nó tự động chuyển quyền điều khiển cho BIOS dự phòng hoạt động Mainboard mới có hai ROM BIOS  Hỗ trợ 2 khe AGP Hai khe AGP ở hai bên và hai khe PCI ở giữa - Với công nghệ này có thể cho phép người sử dụng có. .. tốc độ Ram Bus sẽ được nhân đôi + Ví dụ : Bạn cắm 2 thanh DDR có BUS 400MHz trên hai khe mầu vàng hoặc hai khe mầu đỏ thì tốc độ BUS sẽ được nhân 2 tức là tương đương với BUS 800MHz ( Dung lượng MB vẫn bằng tổng hai thanh cộng lại ) - Nếu bạn cắm 2 thanh trên hai khe có mầu khác nhau thì tốc độ BUS của DDR RAM không thay đổi  Mainboard mới có 2 ROM BIOS + Khi BIOS bị lỗi phần mềm thì sẽ làm cho... hiệu Reset : Đèn này chỉ chớp sáng rồi tắt khi ta bấm nút Reset OSC : Báo tín hiệu dao động của CPU, nếu đèn này không sáng nghĩa là CPU không hoạt động   BIOS : Đèn báo BIOS : đèn này không sáng nghĩa là CPU không đọc dữ liệu trên BIOS hoặc BIOS hỏng CLK : Đèn báo xung Clock của Mainboard, đèn này sáng thường xuyên kể cả khi không có RAM và CPU, nếu đèn này không sáng nghĩa là Chipset trên Mainboard... thường Các đèn nguồn báo sáng, đèn CLK báo sáng cho thấy các chế độ điện áp của Mainboard đã có đủ và Chipset đã hoạt động * Trạng thái chập nguồn hoặc Chipset không hoạt động Mainboard bị mất đường nguồn 5V, nếu là nguồn tốt thì có thể do chập đường 5V trên Mainboard Mainboard bị mất đường nguồn 3,3V Mainboard bị mất đường nguồn 12V, có thể do chập đường 12V tren Mainboard Có đủ các điện áp nhưng chipset... nhưng thi t lập số nhân là 6,0 thì CPU của bạn chạy ở tốc độ = 100 x 6,0 = 600MHz bạn bị thi t về tốc độ Nếu bạn thi t lập ở số nhân là 8,5 thì CPU của bạn cũng chỉ chạy ở tốc độ 733MHz nhưng CPU lại bị nóng do bạn ép tốc độ Bài tập : Có một Mainboard có các bảng hướng dẫn và các vị trí Jumper1, SW1 đã được thi t lập sẵn như sau : BUS 66 100 Jumper 1 A 1-2 2-3 B 1-2 1-2 1-2 133 2-3 . you didn’t tell us about this A. I wish you told us about this B. I wish you would tell us about this C. I wish you had told us about this D. I wish you have told us about this. 42. He’s getting. you didn’t tell us about this A. I wish you told us about this B. I wish you would tell us about this C. I wish you had told us about this D. I wish you have told us about this. 42. He’s getting. are? 2. I/my/school/days/think/are/the/best/days/of/my/life. A. I think my school days are my best days of the life. B. I think my days school are the best days of my life. C. I think my school days

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