– GED SCIENCE PRACTICE QUESTIONS – 47. What can the student conclude from the data? a. The ppt

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– GED SCIENCE PRACTICE QUESTIONS – 47. What can the student conclude from the data? a. The ppt

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47. What can the student conclude from the data? a. The greater the radius of the container, the lower the rate of evaporation. b. The greater the radius of the container, the higher the rate of evaporation. c. The radius of the container is not related to the rate of evaporation. d. The greater the radius of the container, the slower it reaches the set temperature. e. The smaller the radius of the container, the faster it reaches the set temperature. 48. Which two statements are valid objections to the experimental setup? I. All the containers were filled with the same amount of water. II. A different hot plate was used to heat water in different containers. III. Water in different containers was heated for different amounts of time. IV. The containers were not filled completely. a. I and II b. I and III c. I and IV d. II and III e. II and IV 49. The following graph shows how the concentra- tion (amount per unit volume) changes with time. What information can be obtained from the data? a. The amount of reactant does not change with time. b. The amount of product is decreasing. c. The amount of reactant first decreases and then stays constant. d. After 500 seconds, all of the reactant is used. e. At 300 seconds, the concentration of the reac- tant is at maximum. Questions 50 and 51 are based on the following passage. Is Pluto a Planet? Based on perturbations in Neptune’s orbit, the search for a ninth planet was conducted and Pluto was discovered in 1930. Pluto orbits the sun just like the other eight plan- ets, and it has a moon, Charon, and a stable orbit. Based on its distance from the sun, Pluto should be grouped with the planets known as gas giants. In addition, Pluto, like the planet Mercury, has little or no atmos- phere. Pluto is definitely not a comet because it does not have a tail like a comet when it is near the sun. Pluto is also not an asteroid, although its density is closer to an asteroid than to any of the other planets. Pluto is a planet because it has been classi- fied as one for more than sixty years since its discovery. 50. Which argument supporting the classification of Pluto as a planet is the weakest? a. Pluto orbits the sun just like the other eight planets. b. Pluto has a moon. c. Pluto has a stable orbit. d. Pluto, like the planet Mercury, has little or no atmosphere. e. Pluto has been classified as a planet for more than sixty years since discovery. 51. Which one of the following statements is NOT backed with an explanation? a. Pluto is like a planet. b. Pluto should be grouped with planets known as gas giants. c. Pluto is like Mercury. d. Pluto is not a comet. e. Pluto is not an asteroid. Concentration of a Reactant as a Function of Time 0.20 0.15 0.10 0.05 0.00 0 100 200 300 400 500 600 Concentration (mol/liter) Time (seconds) GED SCIENCE PRACTICE QUESTIONS– 279 52. The instrument shown in this picture can be used to study a. cell organelles. b. the flight pattern of birds. c. the movement of stars in other galaxies. d. old manuscripts. e. human vision defects. 53. A large surface area results in a high rate of cool- ing. This is why we tend to curl up when we sleep in a cold room and spread our limbs out when we sleep in a very hot room. Which of the fol- lowing is an example where this principle is used in technology? a. Refrigerators can be used to cool containers of milk with large surface areas. b. Fans that cool computers are often ribbed to increase the surface area for cooling. c. Airplanes are shaped to minimize heat loss in the cabin. d. Heat packs are designed to have a large surface area. e. Microwave ovens are designed to completely close during food preparation. 54. The amount of dissolved gas in a liquid solution depends on the pressure of the gas. Under a high pressure, greater amounts of gas can be dis- solved. Pressure is used to increase the solubility of carbon dioxide gas in a. fish ponds. b. cereals. c. carbonated drinks. d. milk. e. gasoline. Questions 55 and 56 are based on the following diagram. 55. This instrument is used to a. determine the direction of the wind. b. determine the directions of the world. c. find the nearest piece of land when navigating the seas. d. find underground waters. e. determine the direction of water flow. 56. This instrument works because a. it has an internal clock. b. the needle points to the direction of mini- mum pressure. c. the needle changes position depending on the position of the sun. d. the Earth has two magnetic poles. e. the temperatures on Earth’s poles are very low. S N E W 1 8 0 2 1 0 2 4 0 2 7 0 3 0 0 3 3 0 0 3 0 6 0 9 0 1 2 0 1 5 0 GED SCIENCE PRACTICE QUESTIONS– 280 Questions 57 and 58 are based on the following passage. Farm animals can carry salmonella, a kind of bacteria that can cause severe food poi- soning. However, animals fed antibiotics can carry especially deadly strains of salmonella. In Minnesota in 1983, 11 people were hos- pitalized with salmonella poisoning. This number itself was not striking at all. Forty- thousand Americans are hospitalized with salmonella poisoning every year. What was striking about the cases in Minnesota was that each patient had severe symptoms and all the patients were infected with the same, rare strain of salmonella, resistant to several common antibiotics. A young scientist, Scott Holmberg, noted that eight patients were taking the same antibiotics for sore throats. He ruled out the possibility that the antibiotics themselves were infected with the bacteria because three of the patients were not taking antibiotics at all. He later showed that the people were infected with salmonella prior to taking the antibiotics, but that the antibiotics triggered the onset of salmonella poisoning. He postulated that salmonella suddenly flourished when the patients took antibiotics, because the antibi- otics killed off all other competing bacteria. He was also able to trace the antibiotic- resistant salmonella to the beef that was imported to Minnesota from a farm in South Dakota, at which cattle were routinely fed antibiotics and at which one calf died of the same strain of salmonella. 57. As a result of this finding, the Food and Drug Administration should a. carefully regulate the prescription of antibi- otics for sore throats. b. prevent the export of meat from South Dakota to Minnesota. c. limit the practice of feeding antibiotics to cattle. d. take the antibiotic that caused salmonella off the market. e. require special prescription for antibiotics resistant to salmonella. 58. Based on the passage, which one of the following statements is false? a. Salmonella poisoning is a common bacterial infection. b. Some strands of bacteria are resistant to antibiotics. c. Antibiotics kill off bacteria that are not resist- ant to antibiotics. d. Antibiotics transmit salmonella. e. Farm animals can carry salmonella. GED SCIENCE PRACTICE QUESTIONS– 281 Questions 59 through 61 are based on the passage below and the table at the bottom of the page. Minerals are an important component of the human diet. Some minerals are needed in relatively large amounts. These include calcium, phosphorus, potassium, sulfur, chlorine, and magnesium. Others, including iron, manganese, and iodine, are needed in smaller amounts. Humans need 26 minerals all together, but some of them are only required in tiny amounts. Some minerals, such as lead and selenium, are harmful in large quantities. Dietary supplements can decrease the chance of mineral deficiencies listed in the table below, but should be taken with great care, since overdose can lead to poisoning. 59. Taking several iron supplements per day can a. decrease the chance of bone loss. b. make you stronger. c. help relieve PMS symptoms. d. cause poisoning. e. make up for an unbalanced diet. 60. Which of the minerals listed in the table are you most likely lacking if you experience irregular heartbeat? a. sodium b. potassium c. calcium d. phosphorous e. magnesium 61. Which two minerals are necessary for formation of healthy bones and teeth? a. calcium and magnesium b. calcium and phosphorous c. calcium and potassium d. calcium and sodium e. sodium and magnesium 62. Which of the following is the most common result of prolonged excessive alcohol consumption? a. heart attack b. brain tumor c. lung cancer d. liver damage e. cataracts 63. Which of the following could be transmitted through kissing? a. lung cancer b. brain tumor c. flu d. diabetes e. Down’s syndrome GED SCIENCE PRACTICE QUESTIONS– 282 MINERAL GOOD SOURCES SYMPTOMS OF DEFICIENCY FUNCTIONS Sodium Table salt, normal diet Muscle cramps Water balance, muscle and nerve operation Potassium Fruits, vegetables, grains Irregular heartbeat, fatigue, Muscle and nerve opera- muscle cramps tion, acid-base balance Calcium Dairy, bony fish, leafy Osteoporosis Formation of bone and green vegetables teeth, clotting, nerve signaling Phosphorous Dairy, meat, cereals Bone loss, weakness, lack of appetite Formation of bone and teeth, energy metabolism Magnesium Nuts, greens, whole grains Nausea, vomiting, weakness Enzyme action, nerve signaling 64. A woman is most likely to get pregnant if she has unprotected sex a few days before and on the day of ovulation, when the egg is released from the ovaries. The release of the egg is hormonally stimulated, meaning that a hormone in the woman’s body triggers ovulation. On average, women ovulate around the 14th day of their menstrual cycle. The following is a graph show- ing the levels of three hormones throughout the menstrual cycle of an average woman. Based on the graph, which hormone is most directly responsible for triggering ovulation? a. FSH b. LH c. progesterone d. testosterone e. cholesterol 65. Through friction, energy of motion is converted to heat. You use this in your favor when you a. wear gloves to make your hands warm. b. rub your hands together to make them warm. c. soak your hands with hot water to make them warm. d. place your hands near a fireplace to make them warm. e. hold a cup of tea to make your hands warm. 66. The boiling point of water decreases with increasing pressure. At high altitudes, the atmos- pheric pressure is lower than at sea level. Where would you expect to find the highest boiling point temperature of water? a. in the Grand Canyon Valley b. at sea level c. at the base of Mount Everest d. at the top of Mount Everest e. at the top of a small hill 67. As the pressure of a gas increases at constant temperature, the volume of the gas decreases. If you were a diver and you wanted to take an oxygen tank with you, what would you do? a. Pressurize the oxygen, so more of it can fit in a tank of a manageable size. b. Decrease the pressure of oxygen in the tank, so the tank doesn’t explode. c. Increase the temperature of oxygen in the tank, so that the cold oxygen doesn’t damage the lungs. d. Decrease the temperature of oxygen, so that it doesn’t escape from the tank. e. Increase the temperature of the oxygen and decrease the pressure, so the volume stays the same. Apply pressure GAS GAS 70 80 60 50 40 30 20 10 0 0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16 18 20 22 24 26 28 FSH LH Progesterone Hormone concentration (units per ml) Day of menstrual cycle GED SCIENCE PRACTICE QUESTIONS– 283 68. The amount of solute that can be dissolved in a solvent at a given temperature is called solubility. For most substances, solubility increases with temperature. Rock candy can be made from sugar solutions that have an excess of sugar dis- solved. The amount of sugar per 100 grams of water at a given temperature has to be higher than the amount that is normally soluble in order to make rock candy. Based on the solubil- ity of sugar in water as a function of tempera- ture, plotted in the graph, how much sugar would you need to dissolve in 100 grams of water to make rock candy at 40° C? a. less than 50 grams b. between 50 and 100 grams c. between 100 and 150 grams d. between 150 and 200 grams e. more than 250 grams 69. Which of the following energy sources causes the least pollution to the environment? a. coal b. nuclear power c. gasoline d. solar e. oil Questions 70 and 71 are based on the following passage. In 1628, English physician William Harvey established that the blood circulates throughout the body. He recognized that the heart acts as a pump and does not work by using up blood as earlier anatomists thought. To carefully observe the beating of the heart and the direction of blood flow, Harvey needed to see the works of the blood in slow motion. Since there was no way for him to observe a human heart in slow motion, he studied the hearts of toads and snakes, rather than the rapidly beating hearts of “warm-blooded” mammals and birds. By keeping these animals cool, he could slow their hearts down. The main argument for his conclusion that the blood circulates stemmed from his measurement of the amount of blood pumped with each heartbeat. He calculated that the amount of blood pumped each hour by far exceeds the total amount of blood in the body and proved that the same blood passes through the heart over and over again. 70. What misconception did scientist harbor before Harvey’s study? a. The heart circulates blood. b. The heart pumps blood. c. The heart uses up blood. d. The heart contains no blood. e. The heart of birds beats faster than the heart of frogs. 71. Which of the following did Harvey do? I. Observe the heartbeat and blood flow in snakes and frogs. II. Determine that the heart acts as a pump. III. Count the number of blood cells that pass through the heart every hour. IV. Show that the blood circulates. a. He did only I. b. He did I and II. c. He did I, II, and IV. d. He did I, III, and IV. e. He did II, III, and IV. Solubility of Sugar in Water 100 150 200 250 300 350 400 450 500 550 600 50 0 0 102030405060708090100110 Solubility (g of sugar/100 g of water) Temperature (degrees Celsius) GED SCIENCE PRACTICE QUESTIONS– 284 Questions 72 and 73 are based on the following passage. Radiation from radioisotopes can be used to kill cancer cells. Chemist Marie Curie received two Nobel Prizes for her work with radioisotopes. Her work led to the discovery of the neutron and synthesis of artificial radioactive elements. She died of leukemia at 67, caused by extensive exposure to radia- tion. Curie never believed that radium and other materials she worked with were a health hazard. In World War I, glowing radium was used on watch dials to help sol- diers read their watches in the dark and to synchronize their attacks. Unfortunately, women who worked in factories were draw- ing their radium stained brushes to fine points by putting them between their lips. As a result, their teeth would glow in the dark. But this was an amusement for chil- dren more than a cause of worry. About ten years later, the women developed cancer in their jaws and mouths and had problems making blood cells. This exposed the dan- gers of radiation. 72. Based on the information in the passage, which statement about radioisotopes is false? a. Radioisotopes can kill cancer cells. b. Radioisotopes can cause cancer. c. A radioisotope can glow in the dark. d. Einstein received the Nobel Prize for working with isotopes. e. A radioisotope was used in watch dials. 73. Which dangers of radiation were mentioned in the passage? I. Radiation can cause genetic mutations. II. Radiation can lead to leukemia. III. Radiation can cause chemotherapy. a. danger I only b. danger II only c. danger III only d. dangers I and II e. dangers II and III Questions 74 and 75 are based on the following passage. In the past, people thought that the Earth was flat and that a ship that sailed too far would fall off the edge of the world. The Earth appears flat because the Earth is too large for humans on Earth to see its curvature. Several events helped shed the misconceptions. For one, during a lunar eclipse, the Earth is posi- tioned between the sun and the moon. It eclipses the moon by casting a shadow on it. The shadow the Earth casts is round. When Magellan circumnavigated the Earth, he proved that one could not fall off the edge of the Earth, because the Earth was round and had no edges. Finally, space missions provided us with images of our round Earth from far away and showed us how beautiful our planet looks, even from a distance. 74. In the passage, what was cited as proof that the Earth is round? I. Earth casts a round shadow on the moon during a lunar eclipse. II. Earth revolves around the sun. III. Magellan circumnavigated the Earth. IV. images from space a. I and II b. I, II, and III c. I, II, and IV d. I, III, and IV e. II, III, and IV 75. With which misconception about the Earth is the passage concerned? a. that the Earth turned b. that the Earth was in the center of the solar system c. that the Earth was flat d. that the Earth was created at the same time as the sun e. that the Earth could be eclipsed by the sun GED SCIENCE PRACTICE QUESTIONS– 285  Answers and Explanations 1. d. It is the only pair of liquids listed in which one is acidic (vinegar—pH 3) and the other basic (bleach—pH 9). 2. e. The object set in motion slows down and stops swinging because the force of friction acts on it. The kinetic energy of the object is converted to heat energy through friction with air. State- ments a, c, and d are true but are not the reason why the object stops swinging. An object having any mass can maintain motion, so the statement in choice b is wrong. 3. b. An endothermic process requires the input of heat energy. The only one that requires input of energy (heat) is melting ice (ice melts when heated). The rest of the processes listed give off heat, so they are exothermic. 4. a. Things that float are less dense than the sub- stance in which they float. 5. b. The statement is false because the gravitational force between two objects depends on the masses of both objects. All the other statements are true and consistent with Newton’s Law of Gravitation. 6. a. When water vapor condenses, gas changes to liquid. Choices b, c, and d involve chemical reac- tions and can’t be considered physical processes. Through exhaling, choice e, air is pushed out of the lungs, but there is no phase change. 7. a. Two like charges always repel. 8. e. The statement is false because energy is not composed of matter (atoms). All other state- ments are true. 9. e. The molecule in choice e has the most atoms and the largest molecular weight. It therefore has the highest boiling point. 10. c. Gloves provide insulation. They can’t generate heat, choice a. Gloves left out in the snow would be cold. Gloves can’t have an effect on the tem- perature, choice b. They also don’t affect the amount of energy your body produces, choice d, or transform energy in any way, choice e. 11. d. The wavelength of blue-green should be between the wavelength of blue light and green light. The wavelength of blue light is about 450 nm and the wavelength of green light is at about 500 nm. Midway between these wavelengths is 470 nm. 12. a. The number of atoms stays constant throughout a chemical reaction. The number of molecules can change (choice b). For example, in photo- synthesis, 6 molecules of carbon dioxide and 6 molecules of water (total 12 molecules) can react to form 1 molecule of glucose and 6 mole- cules of oxygen (total of 7 molecules). Similarly, the amount of gas and solid can change (choices c and d). The amount of disorder in the uni- verse is always increasing, so it does not have to stay constant through a reaction (choice e). 13. d. The statement is false because light has a finite speed. It is very large, but it is not infinite. The rest of the statements are true. 14. d. Thorns are a form of defense, but are neither camouflage nor chemical defense. Choices a and e are examples of camouflage. Choices b and c are examples of chemical defense. 15. d. The concentration of protein in compartment B is higher. Because of the nature of the mem- brane, the protein can’t pass through it. The only way for concentration to reach the same level in two compartments is for water to flow from A to B. GED SCIENCE PRACTICE QUESTIONS– 286 16. a. Every human normally inherits 23 chromo- somes from the mother and 23 chromosomes from the father. However, that doesn’t mean that humans look exactly 50% like the father and 50% like the mother (choice b), since one par- ent’s genes can be more dominant, and since genes from two parents sometimes produce a blended effect. Fraternal twins happen to be in the womb at the same time, but genetically, they are not any more similar than two siblings who are not twins (choice c). Fraternal twins come from two different eggs fertilized by two differ- ent sperm cells. Exposure to X-rays can alter chromosomes (choice d). Genes are not parti- cles. DNA is not an atom and it doesn’t have a nucleus (choice e). Genes are found in the nucleus of a cell and are made of DNA. 17. a. In order for twins to have the same genes, they need to come from one egg and one sperm cell. 18. c. According to the Punnett square, the combina- tion of genes of Parent I with the genes of Par- ent II results in either offspring with yy (which is yellow) or Yy (which is green). 19. e. The statement is false. Animal cells usually don’t have a cell wall. Other statements are true. 20. e. In humans, the sperm determines the sex of the child because the male has two different chro- mosomes. In birds, the female has two different chromosomes, so she determines the sex of the offspring. Birds have Ws and Zs, not Xs and Ys like humans, so choice d is incorrect. 21. b. The tick is a parasite. It benefits, while the ani- mal it feeds from suffers. 22. e. Statements a through d were illustrated in the passage. Mongooses depend on snakes for food, choice a. The balance in the ecosystem was dis- turbed when a new predator was introduced, choice b. Humans entirely changed the ecosys- tem when they brought the mongooses, choice c. When the population of mongooses increased, the population of snakes decreased, causing a drop in the population of mongooses, choice d. 23. a. There was no mention of choice b in the pas- sage. Choice c is true, but not as directly related to snake disappearance as choice a. Choice d is false. Sailors did not bring prey for the snakes; they brought a predator. There isn’t enough information to support choice e, and even if it were true, it wouldn’t be directly related to the disappearance of snakes. 24. b. There is no support for other statements in the passage. 25. b. Someone who has blood type B can donate blood to those who don’t have antibodies for B. These include other people with type B blood (they have antibodies for A only) and those with type AB blood (they don’t have any antibodies). 26. c. Levels of norepinephrine rise when there is a potential for danger, stress, or excitement. Choice c, petting a rabbit, is the only choice that would tend to calm, rather than scare or excite, a person. 27. a. Salty foods are less prone to bacterial attack because most bacteria can’t grow in environ- ments that are too salty. Being anemic (choice b) is not related to bacteria. Choice c is inconsis- tent with the question. Choices d and e are not true and are inconsistent with the question. 28. b. Natural selection is the process whereby the members of the species who are best able to sur- vive and reproduce in an environment thrive, passing their genes on to next generations. The pollution in the environment selected for dark- ness in peppered moths. 29. d. Penguins are birds. They hatch from eggs and have wings. They are not mammals; they don’t give birth or breastfeed their young. 30. c. Whales are not primates. Primates have five dig- its on each hand and foot, binocular vision, and flexible shoulder joints. GED SCIENCE PRACTICE QUESTIONS– 287 31. a. This diagram corresponds to the correct arrangement of Earth, moon, and the sun dur- ing a solar eclipse. The moon is located between the Earth and the sun, blocking the Earth’s view of the sun. It also corresponds to the correct orbits, with the moon orbiting around the Earth, and the Earth around the sun. Choice b is wrong because it shows the sun orbiting around the Earth, and the moon around the sun. Choice c is wrong because the Earth, moon, and sun are not aligned as they should be during an eclipse, and the moon is not orbiting around the Earth. Choice d shows correct orbits, but the moon is not blocking the sun from the Earth’s view. In fact, choice d corresponds to a lunar eclipse. Choice e is wrong because it shows the Earth and the sun orbiting around the moon. 32. a. Sunlight is caused by nuclear reactions on the sun, not by convection currents of molten rock within the Earth mantle. 33. e. Ozone cannot directly change the surface of the Earth. Processes in a through d can. 34. d. When it’s summer in the Northern Hemisphere, it is winter in the Southern Hemisphere, and vice versa (choices II and IV). On average, the Southern Hemisphere is not warmer than Northern Hemisphere (choice I). The sun always sets in the west, everywhere on Earth. 35. b. Humidity is a measure of the amount of water vapor in air. 36. b. A light-year is a measure of the distance that light travels in a year (about 5.88 trillion miles). 37. a. The passage states that the sun will first expand (not shrink—choices b, c, and e) when it runs out of hydrogen (not helium—choice d), and then 500 million years later, it will shrink. 38. c. Choice c is the correct answer based on the passage. 39. b. Webbed feet enable ducks to swim better by increasing the surface area on their feet. In swimming, being hydrodynamic, not aerody- namic, is important (choice a). Stuck particles between a duck’s toes, choice c, would most likely not be a frequent problem. Webbed feet would not affect the duck’s density, choice d,by much. The rate of heat loss, choice e,may be slightly higher because of larger surface area, but heat loss is not essential for swimming. 40. d. The top division on the graduated cylinder is the 10 ml mark. There are 10 divisions, so each one is 1 ml. The bottom of the meniscus is between 7 ml and 8 ml, so 7.5 ml is the best answer. 41. b. This is what the object looks like when it is inverted left to right (mirror image). When the object is flipped upside down, there is no change in its appearance. 42. b. This is a statement that can’t be tested by scien- tific means. All the others can. 43. b. Choice a is not consistent with observation II. Choices c and d are not testable and are there- fore invalid. Choice e is not relevant to the observations. 44. c. This is the only statement supported by the graph. 45. c. Tropical rain forests are the most productive. 46. e. The number of species lost was greatest in ants. 47. b. “She also found that the decrease in volume was highest in the container with the largest radius. In container 1, volume decrease was barely detectable.” Choice d and e are false because the container with the larger radius reached the set temperature faster. 48. d. There is nothing wrong with I and IV. Using dif- ferent hot plates can have an effect because some hot plates may be heating more efficiently than others. Heating water in all the containers GED SCIENCE PRACTICE QUESTIONS– 288 [...]... two very different things .The topic or subject of a passage is what the passage is about Main idea and theme,on the other hand,are what the writer wants to say about that subject For example, take another look at the poem you read in the pretest, The Eagle”: the power and beauty of the eagle is the theme of the poem To hold all the ideas in the passage together, a main idea or theme needs to be sufficiently... apple In the fourth, he sneaks into the speaker’s garden at night 312 Finally, at the end of the poem, the foe is killed by the poisonous apple (the apple poisoned by the speaker’s wrath) That is what happens in the poem, but what does it all add up to? What does it mean? In other words, what is the theme? Look again at the action Cause and effect are central to the theme of this poem What does the speaker... fact or detail) Main idea and theme are so important because they are what the text adds up to The main idea or theme is what holds all of the ideas in the passage together; it is the writer’s main point Indeed, it is why the writer writes in the first place: to express this idea In The Eagle,” the action and word choice in the poem reveal how the poet feels about his subject The image of a noble eagle... of the substances described in the other choices 55 b The instrument is a compass, used to find directions of the world 64 b The graph shows that the level of LH rapidly rises right before the 14th day of the cycle, and then falls 65 b Only the action in choice b involves friction (of one hand against the other) 66 d The boiling point decreases with increasing pressure So, the lower the pressure, the. .. the ocean is cooler and the air above the land is warmer The breeze blows from the sea to the land series circuit a circuit with only one path for the current to follow The current in each element in a series circuit is the same solubility the amount of solute that can be dissolved completely in a solvent at a given temperature resistance 294 GED SCIENCE PRACTICE QUESTIONS – a homogeneous mixture... relationships 307 READING COMPREHENSION STRATEGIES Determining the Main Idea or Theme Standardized reading comprehension tests always have questions about the main idea of the passage But just what is the main idea, anyway, and why is it so important? And how is the main idea different from the theme? Often,students confuse the main idea,or theme,of a passage with its topic.But they are two very... of the other ideas in the passage to fit underneath, like people underneath an umbrella For example, look at the following choices for the theme of The Eagle”: a Eagles often live on mountains b Eagles can swoop down from the sky very quickly c Eagles are powerful, majestic birds The only answer that can be correct is c, because this is the idea that the whole poem adds up to It’s what holds together.. .– GED SCIENCE PRACTICE QUESTIONS – for the same amount of time, rather than up to a fixed temperature, would be better because the rate of evaporation is the amount of water lost per unit of time By using different times, the student is changing an important variable 49 c Choice a is wrong because initially, the concentration decreases There is no information about the product on the chart,... building Determining Theme in Literature (1) Theme is the overall message or idea that the writer wants to convey Like a main idea, the theme is different from the subject in that the theme says something about the subject For example, take John Donne’s poem (5) “Death Be Not Proud.” The subject of the poem is death But the theme of the poem says something about death The poem’s message is that death is a.. . nonfiction (functional) texts ALL ABOUT THE GED LANGUAGE ARTS, READING EXAM 3 Synthesis questions (3 0–3 5%) ask you to develop theories and hypotheses about the texts In terms of reading comprehension, this is essentially an extension of the inference-making skill Questions may ask you to determine the author’s purpose or intent, infer cause and effect, infer how the author or a character feels . 47. What can the student conclude from the data? a. The greater the radius of the container, the lower the rate of evaporation. b. The greater the radius of the container, the higher the rate. antibiotics. d. Antibiotics transmit salmonella. e. Farm animals can carry salmonella. – GED SCIENCE PRACTICE QUESTIONS 281 Questions 59 through 61 are based on the passage below and the table at the bottom. 9 0 1 2 0 1 5 0 – GED SCIENCE PRACTICE QUESTIONS 280 Questions 57 and 58 are based on the following passage. Farm animals can carry salmonella, a kind of bacteria that can cause severe food

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  • Table of Contents

  • Part 1: Preparing for the GED

    • Chapter 1 All about the GED

    • Chapter 2 Study Skills

    • Chapter 3 Learning Strategies

    • Chapter 4 Test-Taking Strategies

    • Part 2: The GED Language Arts, Writing Exam

      • Chapter 5 About the GED Language Arts, Writing Exam

      • Chapter 6 Sentence Structure

      • Chapter 7 Usage

      • Chapter 8 Mechanics

      • Chapter 9 Organization

      • Chapter 10 Writing an Effective Essay

      • Chapter 11 Tips and Strategies for the GED Language Arts, Writing Exam

      • Chapter 12 GED Language Arts, Writing Practice Questions

      • Part 3: The GED Social Studies Exam

        • Chapter 13 About the GED Social Studies Exam

        • Chapter 14 World History

        • Chapter 15 Civics and Government

        • Chapter 16 Economics

        • Chapter 17 Geography

        • Chapter 18 Tips and Strategies for the GED Social Studies Exam

        • Chapter 19 GED Social Studies Practice Questions

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